TITLE 25.HEALTH SERVICES

Part 1. TEXAS DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Chapter 97. COMMUNICABLE DISEASES

Subchapter F. SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES INCLUDING ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS) AND HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS (HIV)

25 TAC §97.141

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts an amendment to §97.141, concerning the addition of hepatitis C training to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) counseling and testing course currently offered by the department, and raising the fee charged for the course. Section 97.141 is adopted with a change to the proposed text as published in the January 28, 2000, issue of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 498), as the result of staff comments.

During the 76th Legislature, 1999, Chapter 823 (House Bill 1652) was passed which added Chapter 93, Education and Prevention Program for Hepatitis C, to the Health and Safety Code. The amendment adds hepatitis C education and prevention to the established HIV counseling and testing course to comply with the legislative change. The department also added an amendment to increase the fee the department charges participants in the course from $150 to $300 to recoup actual expenses for presenting the course. The public benefit anticipated as a result of enforcing or administering the section will be increased knowledge on the part of those persons providing hepatitis C counseling. Those who complete the course will have more information relating to the special needs of persons with positive hepatitis C test results, including the importance of early intervention and treatment and recognition of psychosocial needs.

No comments were received during the comment period on the proposed amendments; however the department is making a minor grammatical change.

Change: Concerning §97.141(b), hepatitis was published as "Hepatitis" and should be "hepatitis".

The amendment is adopted under Health and Safety Code §85.087, which requires the board to set a fee for the training of HIV counselors; §85.016, which allows the department to adopt rules to implement this requirement; Health and Safety Code §93.003 which requires the board to set a fee for the training of hepatitis C counselors; and §12.001, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§97.141.Fee To Cover the Cost of Providing the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Counseling and Testing Course.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to implement the provisions of the Health and Safety Code, §85.087 and §93.003, which require that the Texas Department of Health (department) develop and offer a training course for persons providing HIV and/or hepatitis C counseling, and authorizes the department to charge a fee for the course.

(b)

Content. The training course shall include information relating to HIV risk reduction and to the special needs of persons with positive HIV and/or hepatitis C test results. The department's Bureau of HIV and STD Prevention sets the content. Detailed information about the course may be obtained from the Bureau of HIV and STD Prevention, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3199.

(c)

Fee.

(1)

The fee will be $300 for each participant whose affiliation is with an entity that does not contract with the department. The Bureau of HIV and STD Prevention may waive the fee according to established internal procedures.

(2)

Fees shall be made payable to the Texas Department of Health. All fees are non-refundable and must be received by the department prior to participation in the course. The accepted forms of payment are cashiers check or money order. No other form of payment will be accepted.

(d)

Notice. Notice of the training courses will be announced through correspondence to contractors and other appropriate entities.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003677

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 123. RESPIRATORY CARE PRACTITIONER CERTIFICATION

25 TAC §§123.4, 123.7, 123.9, 123.10, 123.12

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the amendments to §§123.4, 123.7, 123.9, 123.10 and 123.12, concerning the regulation and certification of respiratory care practitioners. Sections 123.10 and 123.12 are adopted with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 3, 1999, issue of the Texas Register (24 TexReg 10725). Sections 123.4, 123.7, and 123.9 are adopted without changes and therefore, the sections will not be republished. The amendments cover fees; types of certificates and temporary permits and applicant eligibility; certificate renewal; continuing education requirements; and professional and ethical standards.

The amendments delete the specific reactivation and reinstatement fees as these are determined by the renewal fee and the standard conforming Sunset language relating to late renewal processing, add a fee for verification of certification status, extend the period for which an initial respiratory care practitioner certificate is issued, describe and clarify the renewal processing procedures, increase the continuing education credits allowed for certain activities and examinations relating to respiratory care, allow additional verifiable continuing education opportunities based on current trends in continuing education, and update and clarify existing language.

Section 123.4 is amended by deleting the reinstatement and reactivation fees, and adding a fee for written verification of certification status. The reinstatement fee has become a late renewal fee. This fee and the reactivation fees are now based on multipliers of the renewal fee, according to conforming standard Sunset language.

Section 123.7 is amended by extending the time-period for which an initial certificate is issued. The amendment will allow certificates to be issued for not less than seven months, rather than four months based on the former language.

Section 123.9 is amended to correct typographical errors; to add language that is consistent with §123.7 regarding initial certificates; to allow the department to be discretionary regarding specific information requested for renewal; to revise the procedures for late renewal (formerly identified as "reinstatement"); adds conforming standard Sunset language which limits late renewals to less than one year after certificate expiration; and simplifies the procedures and reduces the continuing education relating to reactivating a certificate.

Section 123.10 is amended to clarify existing language relating to continuing education, to specify the content, to allow Internet or computer-based activities, to increase the credit allowed for certain examinations relating to respiratory care, to allow more credits to be earned for advance life support courses; to specify the reporting procedures for continuing education; to delete the term "reinstate," to authorize random audits of continuing education to determine compliance; and to clarify when credits may be carried over to the next continuing education period.

Section 123.12 is amended to specify that any misrepresentations of professional qualifications or credentials is considered a violation or professional and ethical standards.

The following comments were received concerning the proposed sections. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Regarding §123.10, one commenter stated that the 12 hours of continuing education (CE) credit required for annual renewal was excessive. The commenter was concerned that the department had increased the number of CE hours and the renewal fee at the same time, causing added expenses to licensees.

Response: The department disagrees with the comment. The proposed amendments did not cover any changes regarding the number of CE hours required for renewal or renewal fees. Rather, the increases in CE hours and the renewal fee were adopted in 1997. These were the first increases in CE and fees adopted after the RCP rules were promulgated in 1986. The increases were effective for the first renewal cycle which occurred after September 1, 1997. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

Comment: A commenter asked that §123.10(c) be amended to allow CE credit for audio and audio-video taped CE activities.

Response: The department disagrees with this comment. The department is concerned about the opportunity to obtain CE credit without actually studying and completing the materials. No change was made as a result of this comment.

Comment: A commenter asked that §123.10(c) be amended to allow CE credit for directed readings contained in the Journal of the American Association for Respiratory Care (AARC).

Response: The department disagrees with this comment. The department is concerned about the opportunity to obtain CE credit without actually studying and completing the materials. No change was made as a result of this comment.

Comment: Regarding §123.10(c)(4), a commenter submitted favorable comments regarding the proposal to accept four hours of "Internet study" for CE credits.

Response: The department acknowledges the favorable comment. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §123.10(c)(4), one commenter urged the department to not limit the acceptance of "electronic" CE credits to "only those approved by the AARC." The commenter asked that the requirement that CE courses be "approved by the AARC" be removed from the rules as proposed. The commenter stated the rules relating to the acceptance or approval of "electronic" CE credits should be flexible because educational opportunities are expanding quickly.

Response: The department agrees that the rules relating to CE approval should be as flexible as possible in order to allow the acceptance of new or non-traditional CE activities. The department is also concerned that the course content should be directly related to the profession of respiratory care. Therefore, the language in §123.10(c)(4) has been amended to agree with the requirements in §123.10(c)(2)(A) and (C).

Comment: Concerning §123.10(c)(4), a comment was received requesting that the department add language allowing CE credits for self-directed Internet or computer-based study approved and provided by the Texas Society for Respiratory Care. The commenter asked that the new types of CE delivery not be limited to activities approved by the AARC.

Response: The department agrees in principle that the rule regarding the organization which approves Internet or computer-based CE should not be limited to the AARC. However, rather than specify the organizations in the rules, the department has changed the wording of the rule to allow more flexibility. Existing language in §123.10(c)(2)(A) and (C) will apply to Internet or computer-based CE activities. A list of the agencies and organizations approved by the advisory committee is available from the department and will be provided upon request.

Comment: Concerning §123.10(d)(4), a commenter noted that the title, "certified respiratory therapy technician" recredentialing examination was outdated and should be changed to reflect the current title, "certified respiratory therapist" recredentialing examination.

Response: The department agrees and the wording has been changed.

Comment: Concerning §123.10(d)(4) - (7), a commenter suggested that the department allow the same number of CE credits as does the AARC for the various recredentialing and advanced practice examinations offered by the National Board for Respiratory Care.

Response: The department agrees except for changing the number of credits allowed for the Registered Respiratory Therapist (RRT) exams, which would be reduced from 18 hours of credit to 15. The credits allowed for the other exams would increase based on the recommendation. The language in §123.10(d)(4), (7), and (9) has been amended based on the comment. In addition, the number of credits proposed under paragraph (10) for the polysomnographic technologist exam has increased from nine to ten so that, all exams receive equal credit. No changes to paragraphs (5) and (6) were made based on the comment.

Comment: Regarding §123.10(c)(4), a commenter noted the correct name of the national association was the "American Association for Respiratory Care," not the "American Association of Respiratory Care."

Response: The department agrees with the comment. No change will be made based on the comment because the name of the association is being removed from the rule based on other comments.

Comment: Concerning §123.12, Professional and Ethical Standards, a commenter recommended updating the statutory reference to reflect the correct section of the Texas Occupations Code.

Response: The department agrees and the language has been amended.

Comments were received from the American Association for Respiratory Care and the Texas Society for Respiratory Care.

The amendments are adopted under the Respiratory Care Practitioner Certification Act, Texas Occupations Code, Chapter 604, §604.052 (a) and (c) (formerly Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4512l §3(a) and (e)) which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules necessary to implement the Act; and the Texas Health and Safety Code §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§123.10.Continuing Education Requirements.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to establish the continuing education requirements which a respiratory care practitioner must complete annually to maintain certification. These requirements are intended to maintain and improve the quality of professional services in respiratory care provided to the public and keep the practitioner knowledgeable of current research, techniques, and practice and provide other resources which will improve skill and competence in respiratory care.

(b)

General. Continuing education requirements for renewal shall be fulfilled each renewal year.

(1)

The initial period shall begin with the date the department issues the certificate and end on the last day of the birth month at the time of the second renewal.

(2)

At the time the certificate is mailed, each practitioner shall be notified of the beginning and ending dates of the continuing education period.

(3)

A practitioner must complete 12 clock hours of continuing education acceptable to the department during each renewal year.

(4)

A clock hour shall be 50 minutes of attendance and participation in an acceptable continuing education experience.

(c)

Types of acceptable continuing education. Continuing education must be in skills relevant to the practice of respiratory care and must have a direct benefit to patients and clients and shall be acceptable if the experience falls in one or more of the following categories:

(1)

respiratory care course work seminars, workshops, review sessions, or other organized educational programs completed at or through any respiratory care education program;

(2)

participation in any program (e.g., in-service educational training programs, institutes, seminars, workshops and conferences) which is:

(A)

directly related to the profession of respiratory care;

(B)

instructor directed; and

(C)

approved, recognized, accepted, or assigned continuing education credits by professional organizations or associations or offered by a federal, state, or local governmental entity. A list approved by the advisory committee is available from the department upon request;

(3)

instruction or teaching in programs set out in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection, provided that such instruction or teaching is not a part of, or required as a part of, one's employment, or;

(4)

up to four credit hours during each renewal period of self-directed Internet- based or computer-based studies, including a post-test, which meets the requirements described in paragraphs (2)(A) and (2)(C) of this subsection.

(d)

Determination of clock hours. The department shall credit continuing education experiences as follows.

(1)

Completion of course work at or through a respiratory care educational program as set out in subsection (c)(1) of this section shall be credited on the basis of 15 clock hours for each semester hour successfully completed for credit or audit, evidenced by a certificate of successful completion or official transcript.

(2)

Parts of programs, activities, workshops, seminars, sessions, etc., which meet the criteria of subsections (c)(1) or (2) of this section shall be credited on a one-for-one basis with one clock hour for each clock hour spent in the continuing education activity.

(3)

Teaching in programs which meet the department's criteria as set out in subsection (c)(3) of this section shall be credited on the basis of two clock hours for each hour actually taught.

(4)

Passing the certified respiratory therapist recredentialing examination shall be credited on the basis of ten clock hours.

(5)

Passing the written registry examination for advanced respiratory therapy practitioners for credentialing or recredentialing shall be credited on the basis of nine clock hours.

(6)

Passing the registered respiratory therapist clinical simulation examination for credentialing or recredentialing shall be credited on the basis of nine clock hours.

(7)

Passing the National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc. (NBRC) pediatric specialty examination shall be credited on the basis of ten clock hours.

(8)

Successful completion of the initial course in advanced cardiac life-support, pediatric advanced life-support, the neonatal advanced life-support course, basic trauma life-support or pre-hospital trauma life-support shall be credited on the basis of 12 clock hours. Recertification courses shall be credited for the number of hours actually completed during the recertification course, but shall not count for more than 12 hours.

(9)

Passing the certification examination for entry level pulmonary function technologists or the registry examination for advanced pulmonary function technologists for credentialing shall be credited on the basis of ten clock hours.

(10)

Passing the registration examination offered by the Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists shall be credited on the basis of ten clock hours.

(e)

Reporting of continuing education. Each practitioner shall be responsible for reporting to the department the continuing education activities completed.

(1)

A practitioner shall report the number of hours of continuing education completed during the renewal period. If requested by the department, each practitioner shall submit proof of completion of the required continuing education activity to the department at the time of certificate renewal, or at other times as directed by the department. However, if an extension has been granted in accordance with subsection (g) of this section, the practitioner shall file the continuing education hours immediately following completion of the activity.

(2)

Each continuing education activity filed by a practitioner must be accompanied by appropriate documentation of the continuing education claimed as follows:

(A)

for a program attended, signed certification by a program leader or instructor of the practitioner's participation in the program by certificate, or letter on letterhead of the sponsoring agency, or official continuing education validation form or official transcript of the sponsoring agency accompanied by a brochure, agenda, program, or other applicable information, indicating content of the program;

(B)

for teaching or instruction in approved programs, a letter on sponsoring agency's letterhead giving name of program, location, dates, and subjects taught, and giving total clock hours of teaching or instruction;

(C)

for completion of course work at or through respiratory care education programs, a certificate of successful completion or an official transcript.

(f)

Activities unacceptable as continuing education. The department may not grant continuing education credit to any practitioner for:

(1)

education incidental to the regular professional activities of a practitioner such as learning occurring from experience or research;

(2)

organization activity such as serving on committees or councils or as an officer in a professional organization;

(3)

any program or activity which is not approved in accordance with subsection (c)(2) of this section;

(4)

any experience which does not fit the types of acceptable continuing education in subsection (c) of this section;

(5)

any continuing education activity completed before or after the renewal year for which the continuing education credit is submitted except as allowed under subsection (g)(1) of this section;

(6)

self-study continuing education programs or activities except those set out in subsection (c)(4) of this section; or

(7)

activities which have been completed more than once during the continuing education period.

(g)

Failure to complete required continuing education.

(1)

A practitioner who has failed to complete the requirements for continuing education as specified in subsection (b) of this section may be granted up to a 90-day extension to a reporting period if the renewal fee is paid on or prior to the expiration date. The 90-day extension is the maximum that may be granted and there will be no exceptions.

(A)

Following the receipt of the current renewal form and fee, the department shall issue identification cards which are certificates valid for a 90-day period beginning with the day following the expiration date of the practitioner's annual certificate and a written notice that the continuing education period has been extended.

(B)

If the deficiency is made up prior to the end of the extension, the department will notify the practitioner that the next reporting period commences on the day following the completion of the credits to correct the deficiency. The new reporting period shall end on the next renewal date. In other words, whenever an extension is granted, the time is borrowed from the next reporting period.

(C)

If an excess number of credits were earned during an extension, the excess will be credited toward the new reporting period.

(D)

A practitioner may not receive another extension at the end of the 90-day extension.

(2)

A practitioner who has failed to complete the requirements for continuing education as specified in subsection (b) of this section and who has not completed the continuing education requirement during the 90-day extension shall return the certificate and identification cards to the department and shall not advertise or represent himself or herself as a respiratory care practitioner in any manner. The person may renew the certificate or reapply for a new certificate in accordance with §123.9(e) of this title (relating to Certificate Renewal).

(h)

Other miscellaneous provisions.

(1)

Audiovisual programs may be accepted by the department if such a program represents one of the instructional methods or strategies rather than constituting the entire program and provided the program meets the criteria as set out in subsection (c) of this section.

(2)

A practitioner who also holds a current license, registration, or certification in another health care profession or a current license, registration, or certification as a respiratory care practitioner in another state, territory, or country may satisfy the continuing education requirements for renewal in Texas with hours counted toward renewal of another license, registration, or certification as long as all of the hours meet all of the requirements of this section.

(3)

Hardships will be considered and granted by the department on a case by case basis.

(4)

The department may conduct random audits of continuing education completed by practitioners to determine compliance with this section.

(5)

No continuing education hours may be carried over from one renewal period to another renewal period unless the hours were earned during a continuing education extension as set out in subsection (g) of this section.

§123.12.Professional and Ethical Standards.

The purpose of this section shall be to establish the standards of professional and ethical conduct required of a practitioner pursuant to the Act, §604.201(b)(4).

(1)

Professional representation and responsibilities.

(A)

A practitioner shall not misrepresent any professional qualifications or credentials or provide any information that is false, deceptive, or misleading to the department, for employment or work assignment as a respiratory care practitioner, or fail to disclose any information that could affect the decision to employ or assign a task as a respiratory care practitioner.

(B)

A practitioner shall not make any false or misleading claims about the efficacy of any services or methods of treatment.

(C)

A practitioner shall not extend his or her practice beyond his or her competence and authority vested in him or her by a physician or this Act.

(D)

A practitioner shall not permit the use of his or her name for the purpose of documenting that respiratory care services have been rendered unless that practitioner has provided those services.

(E)

A practitioner shall not promote or endorse products, services, or equipment in a manner that is false and misleading.

(F)

A practitioner shall maintain knowledge and skills for continuing professional competence. A practitioner shall participate in continuing education programs and activities as set out in §123.10 of this title (relating to Continuing Education Requirements).

(G)

A practitioner shall not use alcohol or any drugs in any manner which detrimentally affects the provision of respiratory care.

(H)

A practitioner shall have the responsibility of reporting alleged misrepresentations or violations of the Act or these sections to the department.

(I)

The practitioner shall be responsible for competent and efficient performance of his assigned duties and shall report to the department incompetence and illegal or unethical conduct of members of the profession.

(J)

A practitioner shall not retaliate against any person who reported in good faith to the department alleged incompetence; illegal, unethical, or negligent conduct of any practitioner; or alleged misrepresentation or any violation(s) of the Act or these sections.

(K)

A practitioner shall keep his or her file updated by notifying the department of changes in preferred mailing address and telephone number.

(L)

A practitioner shall not make any false, misleading, or deceptive claims in any advertisement, announcement, presentation, or in competitive bidding.

(M)

A practitioner shall conform to medically accepted principles and standards of respiratory care which are those generally recognized by the profession as appropriate for the situation presented, including those promulgated or interpreted by or under the AART, the NBRC, the Texas Society for Respiratory Therapy, the board, the department, and other professional or governmental bodies.

(N)

A practitioner shall not delegate respiratory care functions or responsibilities to a person who lacks the ability or knowledge to perform the function or responsibility. A practitioner providing respiratory care services may be assisted by an aide or orderly. Aides/orderlies may not perform respiratory care procedures.

(O)

A practitioner shall not leave an assignment without being properly relieved by appropriate personnel.

(P)

The department shall consider the failure of a practitioner to respond to a request for information or other correspondence relating to the certification process or these sections as unprofessional conduct and grounds for disciplinary proceedings in accordance with §123.14 of this title (relating to Violations, Complaints and Subsequent Actions).

(2)

Relationships with patients/clients.

(A)

A practitioner shall make known to a prospective patient the important aspects of the professional relationship, including fees and arrangement for payment which might affect the decision to enter into a contractual relationship.

(B)

A practitioner shall not receive or give a commission or rebate or any other form of direct or indirect remuneration or benefit for the referral of patients/clients for professional services.

(C)

A practitioner shall disclose to patients or clients any interest in commercial enterprises which the practitioner promotes through patients or clients for the purpose of direct or indirect personal gain or profit.

(D)

A practitioner shall not accept gratuities for preferential consideration of the patient. The practitioner shall guard against conflicts of interest.

(E)

A practitioner shall take reasonable action to inform a patient's/client's physician and any appropriate allied health care provider in cases where a patient's/client's cardiorespiratory status indicates a change in medical status.

(F)

A practitioner shall not violate any provision of any federal or state statute relating to confidentiality of patient/client communication and/or records. All inquiries shall be referred to the physician in charge of the patient's medical care.

(G)

A practitioner shall not engage in any activities that seek to meet the practitioner's personal needs at the expense or detriment of a patient/client.

(H)

A practitioner shall practice respiratory care only under the direction of a qualified medical director or other physician licensed by the Texas State Board of Medical Examiners. For the purpose of this section direction shall mean:

(i)

assuring that established policies are carried out;

(ii)

monitoring and evaluating the quality, safety, and appropriateness of respiratory care services and taking action based on findings; and

(iii)

providing consultation whenever required, particularly on patients receiving continuous ventilatory or oxygenation support.

(3)

Billing information required; prohibited practice.

(A)

On the written request of a client, a client's guardian, or a client's parent, if the client is a minor, a practitioner shall provide, in plain language, a written explanation of the charges for respiratory care services previously made on a bill or a statement for the client. This requirement applies even if the charges are to be paid by a third party.

(B)

A practitioner may not persistently or flagrantly overcharge or overtreat a client.

(4)

Sanctions. A practitioner shall be subject to disciplinary action by the board if the practitioner is issued a public letter of reprimand, is assessed a civil penalty by a court, or has an administrative penalty imposed by the attorney general's office under the Crime Victims Compensation Act, Code of Criminal Procedure, Article 56.31 et seq.

(5)

Disclosure. A practitioner shall make a reasonable attempt to notify each client of the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the department for the purpose of directing complaints to the department by providing notification:

(A)

on each written contract for services of a practitioner;

(B)

on a sign prominently displayed in the primary place of business of each practitioner; or

(C)

in a bill for service provided by a practitioner to a client or third party.

(6)

Unlawful false, misleading, or deceptive advertising.

(A)

A practitioner shall not use advertising that is false, misleading, or deceptive or that is not readily subject to verification.

(B)

False, misleading, or deceptive advertising or advertising that is not readily subject to verification includes advertising that;

(i)

makes a material misrepresentation of fact or omits a fact necessary to make the statement as a whole not materially misleading;

(ii)

makes a representation likely to create an unjustified expectation about the results of a health care service or procedure;

(iii)

compares a health care professional's services with another health care professional's services unless the comparison can be factually substantiated;

(iv)

contains a testimonial;

(v)

causes confusion or misunderstanding as to the credentials, education, or licensure of a health care professional;

(vi)

advertises or represents that health care insurance deductibles or copayments may be waived or are not applicable to health care services to be provided if the deductibles or copayments are required;

(vii)

advertises or represents that the benefits of a health benefit plan will be accepted full payment when deductibles or copayments are required;

(viii)

makes a representation that is designed to take advantage of the fears or emotions of a particularly susceptible type of patient; or

(ix)

advertises or represents in the use of a professional name a title or professional identification that is expressly or commonly reserved to or used by another profession or professional. A "health care professional" includes a certified respiratory care practitioner, temporary permitted respiratory care practitioner, or any other person licensed, certified, or registered by the state in a health-related profession.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003675

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: December 3, 1999

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 133. HOSPITAL LICENSING

Subchapter C. OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS

25 TAC §133.45

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts an amendment to §133.45 concerning voluntary paternity establishment services in hospitals with changes to the proposed text as published in the January 28, 2000, issue of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 499), as a result of comments received during the 30-day comment period.

The amendment adds new subsection (e) relating to voluntary paternity establishment services. Hospitals licensed by the department that handle the birth of newborns will be required to provide voluntary paternity establishment services in accordance with the section as a condition of licensure.

Federal law found at 42 United States Code §666(a)(5) requires that each state establish certain procedures concerning paternity establishment services. The United States Department of Health and Human Services has adopted regulations relating to the establishment of paternity. The regulations are found at 45 Code of Federal Regulations §302.70(a)(5)(iii) and §303.5(g). The federal regulations require that all private and public birthing hospitals participate in the voluntary paternity establishment services program. The Texas Legislature enacted Acts 1999, 76th Legislature, Chapter 556, (Senate Bill 368) which amends the Family Code and the Health and Safety Code to incorporate the requirements concerning paternity establishment which are required by federal law.

This amendment requires hospitals to comply with Health and Safety Code, §192.012 relating to record of acknowledgment of paternity and the rules of the Office of the Attorney General found at Title 1, Texas Administrative Code, Chapter 55, Subchapter J (relating to Voluntary Paternity Acknowledgment Process). There is no express entity identified in federal or state law, federal regulations, or the rules of the Office of the Attorney General which would be responsible for insuring enforcement of the law and rules. Therefore, this amendment is being added to the hospital licensing rules as a condition of licensure in order to ensure a hospital's compliance with the law and rules and to provide a mechanism for sanctioning a hospital that fails to comply with the requirements relating to voluntary paternity establishment services. Compliance will be determined during licensing surveys and inspections.

The department received no public comments during the comment period for this amendment. However, the department is making the following minor change in order to reflect the correct title of Subchapter J (relating to Voluntary Paternity Acknowledgment Process) in rules proposed by the Office of Attorney General at Title 1, Part 3, Texas Administrative Code, Chapter 55, as published in the January 7, 2000, edition of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 19).

Change: Concerning §133.45(e)(2), the title of Subchapter J has been corrected to read Voluntary Paternity Acknowledgment Process.

The amendment is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §241.026, which requires the Texas Board of Health (board) to adopt and enforce rules to further the purposes of the Texas Hospital Licensing Law including rules relating to hospital services relating to patient care and compliance with other state and federal laws affecting the rights of patients; the Family Code, §160.215 which allows the department to adopt rules to implement the requirements relating to acknowledgment or denial of paternity; the Health and Safety Code, §191.003, which allows the board to adopt necessary rules relating to vital statistics; and the Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law upon the board, the department, and commissioner of health.

§133.45.Miscellaneous Policies and Protocols.

(a)

Determination of death and autopsy reports. The hospital shall adopt, implement, and enforce protocols to be used in determining death and for filing autopsy reports which comply with Health and Safety Code (HSC), Title 8, Subtitle A, Chapter 671 (Determination of Death and Autopsy Reports).

(b)

Organ and tissue donors. The hospital shall adopt, implement, and enforce a written protocol to identify potential organ and tissue donors which is in compliance with the Texas Anatomical Gift Act, HSC, Chapter 692. The hospital shall make its protocol available to the public during the hospital's normal business hours.

(1)

The hospital's protocol shall include all requirements in HSC, Chapter 692, §692.013 (Hospital Protocol).

(2)

A hospital which performs organ transplants shall be a member of the Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network in accordance with 42 United States Code, §274 (Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network).

(c)

Disaster preparedness. A hospital shall adopt, implement, and enforce a written policy for publicly known natural disaster preparedness for the reception, treatment, and disposition of casualties. The written policy shall:

(1)

be developed through a joint effort of the hospital governing body, administration, medical staff, and hospital personnel;

(2)

include a plan for the reasonable mechanism for triaging patients, the notification of appropriate personnel and patients in the event of a disaster, the identification of appropriate community resources, and the identification of possible evacuation procedures; and

(3)

include the applicable information contained in the National Fire Protection Association 99, Standard for Health Care Facilities, 1996 edition, Annex 1 (Health Care Emergency Preparedness), published by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), and the State of Texas Emergency Management Plan. Information regarding the State of Texas Emergency Management Plan is available from the city or county emergency management coordinator. The NFPA document referenced in this section may be obtained by writing or calling the NFPA at the following address and telephone number: 1 Batterymarch Park, Post Office Box 9101, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269- 9101, (800) 344-3555.

(d)

Illegal remuneration. A hospital shall adopt, implement, and enforce a policy to ensure that the hospital complies with HSC, Chapter 161, Subchapter I (Illegal Remuneration).

(e)

A hospital that handles the birth of newborns must provide voluntary paternity establishment services in accordance with:

(1)

the Health and Safety Code, §192.012, Record of Acknowledgment of Paternity; and

(2)

the rules of the Office of the Attorney General found at 1 Texas Administrative Code, Chapter 55, Subchapter J (relating to Voluntary Paternity Acknowledgment Process).

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003681

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 135. AMBULATORY SURGICAL CENTERS

Subchapter A. OPERATING REQUIREMENTS FOR AMBULATORY SURGICAL CENTERS

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts amendments to §135.3 and §135.21, the repeal of §§135.25-135.27, and new §§135.25-135.29, concerning the regulation of ambulatory surgical centers, without changes to the proposed text as published in the January 28, 2000, issue of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 500), and therefore the sections will not be republished.

The amendment to §135.3 increases the initial and renewal license fees from $1,000 to $2,000 to cover the increased cost to the department of conducting on-site licensing inspections of ambulatory surgical centers every three years in accordance with Health and Safety Code §243.006(b), as amended by Senate Bill 1249, 76th Legislature, 1999. The amendment to §135.21 adds new language to implement the amendment to Health and Safety Code §243.006(b) concerning the on-site licensing inspections of ambulatory surgical centers licensed by the department and certified under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act once every three years while the center maintains the certification.

The repeal of §§135.25-135.27 provides reorganization of the sections within Subchapter A. New §135.25 and §135.26 contain language to incorporate legislative mandates; new §§135.27-135.29 contain the language that was previously in repealed §§135.25-135.27, with minor text updates.

New §135.25 implements certain provisions of Senate Bill 1249, 76th Legislative, 1999. Senate Bill 1249 amended Health and Safety Code, Chapter 243 by adding §243.0115 which grants the department authority to issue an emergency order to suspend a license issued under this chapter.

New §135.26 implements House Bill 2085, Article 3, which amended Health and Safety Code, Chapter 243, by adding §243.015 and §243.016, relating to administrative penalties for ambulatory surgical centers. These sections set forth standard language developed by the Sunset Advisory Commission regarding the imposition of an administrative penalty on a person who violates Chapter 243 or a rule adopted under that chapter; the amount of the penalty; the report and notice of a violation and penalty; the penalty to be paid or hearing requested; a hearing; decision by the commissioner; options following a decision to pay or appeal; stay enforcement of the penalty; collection of penalty; decisions by the court; the remittance of penalty and interest; and release of bond.

New §135.27 incorporates requirements from repealed §135.25 relating to complaints. New §135.28 incorporates requirements from the repealed §135.26 relating to reporting of incidents. New §135.29 incorporates the requirements of repealed §135.27 relating to confidentiality.

All comments received during the 30-day comment period concerned the proposed amendment to §135.3 which increases the licensing fees. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Concerning §135.3, four commenters stated their opposition to the increase in licensing fees. One commenter felt it was unreasonable to have an annual license fee of $2,000 for his ambulatory surgical center (ASC) which remains idle three days a week. In fact, the commenter felt the current $1,000 fee was excessive. Another commenter stated he believes the increase is an inappropriate charge because there is no indication that $6,000 is what is required to inspect ambulatory surgical centers (ASCs), and believes it is quite a bit less on an every three years basis. One commenter stated the proposed rules seem to be more representative of a tax increase than a fee and that there is no evidence given that the proposed fee increase will result in a corresponding increase in benefit to the public, particularly in the cases of smaller ASCs or ASCs which already undergo strict surveys. The fourth commenter stated the fee increase might not seem a significant amount to a larger multi-specialty surgical facility but is quite onerous to a private practitioner doing a limited amount of surgery.

Response: The department disagrees. Senate Bill 1249 amended the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 243, to authorize on-site licensing inspections of ASCs licensed by the department and certified under Title XVIII of the Social Security Administration once every three years while the center maintains the certification. The license fee increase is necessary to cover the increased cost to the department of conducting the on-site licensing inspections in accordance with the statute. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §135.3, one commenter felt the increase was inappropriate because there was no indication that the increased fee was what was required to inspect surgery centers on a three year basis. The commenter was concerned that by failing to detail anticipated increases in costs, leaves open the possibility that the increased revenue will exceed the cost of inspection ASCs triennial and maintaining records of those inspections, and that under such circumstances, a fee increase beyond that necessary to cover increased costs would amount to a tax specifically targeted at ASCs. The commenter also stated that neither the law nor the proposed rules set forth a required frequency with which the department must inspect ASCs, but rather a frequency with which the department may perform inspections. The commenter further stated that without firm policy regarding the frequency of inspections, it would be improper to increase an annual licensing fee. The commenter recommended the establishment of an inspection fee to be charged at the time of the on-site inspection.

Response: The department disagrees with the commenter. Current statutory language found at Health and Safety Code §243.007, Fees, stipulates that "the board shall set fees imposed by this chapter in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering this chapter" and §243.008 Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC) Licensing Fund stipulates that "all fees collected under this chapter shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the ASC Licensing Fund and may be appropriated to the department only to administer and enforce this chapter". The ASC Licensing Fee Fund was abolished through funds consolidation, therefore, the licensing fees would be raised to cover the increased cost of the Act. The department fully intends to conduct the surveys and will require the additional licensing fees as projected in fiscal notes to the Legislative Budget Board in order to implement the provisions of the statute. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Two commenters offered comments concerning accreditation by independent accreditation organizations. One of the commenters stated ASCs were required to have deemed status approval inspections by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health care Organizations (JCAHO), that the surveys cost a great deal of money, and that they seem to do the same thing as a licensure survey. The other commenter stated that in many cases, such as JCAHO's "deemed status," the accreditation includes triennial, unannounced inspections of ASCs as required by the Health Care Financing Administration for Medicare certification. The commenter wanted to know if the department would perform its own, redundant, inspections of ASCs, or will it ask that the ASC make the results of the independent surveys available for review? The commenter stated that, if so, it would appear that the state is engaging in the expenditure of state funds for redundant inspections. The commenter recommended filing fees for processing and reviewing the results of third-party inspections in the place of department inspections under the same rules.

Response: The department disagrees with the commenters concerning accreditation and deemed status approval. There is no authorization in the statute to recognize accreditation by accreditation organizations nor is there a requirement for centers to obtain accreditation for licensure purposes. Accreditation and Medicare certification are strictly voluntary programs, licensure is not. The department does not agree that the surveys would be redundant. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §135.3, two commenters recommended fees based upon the size of the center. One of the commenters suggested a scale of licensure fees, that in his opinion, would be more appropriate for the type of facility being inspected. The commenter felt was felt this would be more in line with the fee schedules of organizations such as Joint Commission of Accredited Health Organizations and Accreditation Association of Ambulatory Health Care. The other commenter stated the increase in costs created by the inspection of ASCs is certain to be uneven due to the fact that ASCs range greatly in size, and that a unilateral licensing fee increase made to cover the department's increased costs places an undue, almost punitive burden on smaller ASCs such as those with fewer than three operating rooms. The commenter said that other entities that perform on-site inspections set charges for those inspections by the number of operating rooms so as to ensure that the fee charged is commensurate with the inspection costs. The commenter recommended the use of graduated inspection fees for ASCs that the department inspects and filing fees for processing and reviewing the results of third-party inspections in the place of department inspections.

Response: The department disagrees with the commenters. The fee increase is necessary to defray the cost of administering the program in accordance with the Health and Safety Code §243.006. The department does not control appropriation of funds to manage the program, that is determined by the legislature. The additional revenues must be sufficient to cover the costs of the appropriation as well as any indirect costs associated with the implementation of the provisions of Senate Bill 1249. No change was made as a result of comments.

The commenters included the Texas Ophthalmological Association and three individuals, all of whom were not in favor of the amendment to the rules which increases the licensing fees. The commenters were not against the rules in their entirety, however, they expressed concerns, asked questions and suggested recommendations for change as discussed in the summary of comments.

25 TAC §§135.3, 135.21, 135.25 - 135.29

The amendments and new sections are adopted under Health and Safety Code, Chapter 243, the Texas Ambulatory Surgical Center Licensing Act; Health and Safety Code, §243.006, regarding inspections; Health and Safety Code, §243.007, regarding fees; Health and Safety Code, §243.0115 which grants the department authority to issue an emergency suspension order to suspend a license; Health and Safety Code, §243.015 and §243.016, which provides the department with the authority to assess administrative penalties against an ambulatory surgical center for violation of Chapter 243 and the rules adopted thereunder; and Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003683

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


25 TAC §135.25 - 135.27

The repeals are adopted under Health and Safety Code, Chapter 243, the Texas Ambulatory Surgical Center Licensing Act; Health and Safety Code, §243.006, regarding inspections; Health and Safety Code, §243.007, regarding fees; Health and Safety Code, §243.0115 which grants the department authority to issue an emergency suspension order to suspend a license; Health and Safety Code, §243.015 and §243.016, which provides the department with the authority to assess administrative penalties against an ambulatory surgical center for violation of Chapter 243 and the rules adopted thereunder; and Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003684

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 137. BIRTHING CENTERS

Subchapter C. ENFORCEMENT

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of §137.23, and new §§137.23 - 137.25, concerning the regulation of birthing centers. Section 137.24 is adopted with changes to the proposed text as published in the January 28, 2000, issue of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 504). The repeal of §137.23 and new §§137.23 and 137.25 are adopted without changes and therefore the sections will not be republished.

The repeal of §137.23 allows the reorganization in a more appropriate order the sections within Subchapter C which contain new language to incorporate legislative mandates. The adopted language in §137.23 is moved to new §137.25. New §137.23 implements certain provisions of Senate Bill 1232, 76th Legislature, 1999, which grants the department the authority to issue an emergency order to suspend a license.

New §137.24 implements House Bill 2085, Article 4, which amends Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244 by adding §244.015 and §244.016 relating to administrative penalties for birthing centers. These sections set forth standard language developed by the Sunset Advisory Commission regarding the imposition of an administrative penalty on a person who violates Chapter 244 or a rule adopted under that chapter; the amount of the penalty; the basis for the amount of the penalty; the report and notice of a violation and penalty; the penalty to be paid or hearing requested; a hearing; decision by the commissioner; options following a decision to pay or appeal; stay enforcement of the penalty; collection of penalty; decision by the court; the remittance of penalty and interest; and release of bond. Section 137.24 incorporates the language of §244.015 and §244.016.

New §137.25 includes the adopted language of §137.23 that is repealed. In addition, a new subsection (i) is added to implement Health and Safety Code §244.0105, of SB 1232, 76th Legislature, 1999. The subsection sets forth standard language developed by the Sunset Advisory Commission authorizing that a person may file a complaint with the department against a birthing center licensed under Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244, and that a person who files a false complaint may be prosecuted under the Penal Code. Section §137.25(i) incorporates the language of §244.0105.

No comments were received on the proposal during the comment period.

The department is making the following change due to staff comments to reflect proper reference to Government Code, Chapter 2001.

Change: Concerning §137.24(a)(3), proper reference is given to the Government Code, Chapter 2001.

25 TAC §137.23

The repeal is adopted under Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244, which authorizes the department to issue an emergency suspension order to suspend a license; which provides the department with the authority to assess administrative penalties against a birthing center for violation of Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244 and the rules adopted thereunder; and Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003679

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


25 TAC §§137.23 - 137.25

The new sections are adopted under Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244, which authorizes the department to issue an emergency suspension order to suspend a license; which provides the department with the authority to assess administrative penalties against a birthing center for violation of Health and Safety Code, Chapter 244 and the rules adopted thereunder; and Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and commissioner of health.

§137.24.Administrative Penalties.

(a)

Imposition of penalty.

(1)

The department may impose an administrative penalty on a person licensed under this chapter who violates the Act, this chapter, or an order adopted under this chapter.

(2)

A penalty collected under this section shall be deposited in the state treasury in the general revenue fund.

(3)

A proceeding to impose the penalty is considered to be a contested case under Government Code, Chapter 2001.

(b)

Amount of penalty.

(1)

The amount of the penalty may not exceed $1,000 for each violation. Each day a violation continues or occurs is a separate violation for purposes of imposing a penalty. The total amount of the penalty assessed for a violation continuing or occurring on separate days under this paragraph may not exceed $5,000.

(2)

In determining the amount of an administrative penalty assessed under this section, the department shall consider:

(A)

the seriousness of the violation, including the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation;

(B)

the threat to health or safety caused by the violation;

(C)

the history of previous violations;

(D)

the amount necessary to deter a future violation;

(E)

whether the violator demonstrated good faith, including when applicable whether the violator made good faith efforts to correct the violation; and

(F)

any other matter that justice may require.

(c)

Report and notice of violation and penalty.

(1)

If the department initially determines that a violation occurred, the department shall give written notice of the report by certified mail to the person alleged to have committed the violation not later than 90 days following the survey exit date.

(2)

The notice must include:

(A)

a brief summary of the alleged violation;

(B)

a statement of the amount of the recommended penalty based on the factors listed in subsection (b)(2) of this section; and

(C)

a statement of the person's right to a hearing on the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both.

(d)

Penalty to be paid or hearing requested.

(1)

Within 20 days after the date the person receives the notice under subsection (c), the person in writing may:

(A)

accept the determination and recommended penalty of the department; or

(B)

make a request for a hearing on the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both.

(2)

If the person accepts the determination and recommended penalty or if the person fails to respond to the notice, the commissioner of health (commissioner) or the commissioner's designee by order shall approve the determination and impose the recommended penalty.

(e)

Hearing.

(1)

If the person requests a hearing, the commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall refer the matter to the State Office of Administrative Hearings (SOAH).

(2)

As mandated by Health and Safety Code, §244.015(i), the SOAH shall promptly set a hearing date and give written notice of the time and place of the hearing to the person.

(A)

An administrative law judge of the SOAH shall conduct the hearing.

(B)

The administrative law judge shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law and promptly issue to the commissioner a proposal for a decision about the occurrence of the violation and the amount of a proposed penalty.

(f)

Decision by commissioner.

(1)

Based on the findings of fact, conclusions of law, and proposal for a decision made by the administrative judge under subsection (e)(2) of this section, the commissioner or the commissioner's designee by order may find that a violation occurred and impose a penalty; or find that a violation did not occur.

(2)

The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall give notice of the commissioner's order under paragraph (1) of this subsection to the person alleged to have committed the violation in accordance with Government Code, Chapter 2001. The notice must include:

(A)

a statement of the right of the person to judicial review of the order;

(B)

separate statements of the findings of fact and conclusions of law; and

(C)

the amount of any penalty assessed.

(g)

Options following decision: pay or appeal. Within 30 days after the date the order of the commissioner or commissioner's designee under subsection (f) of this section that imposes an administrative penalty becomes final, the person shall:

(1)

pay the penalty; or

(2)

appeal the penalty by filing a petition for judicial review of the commissioner's order contesting the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both.

(h)

Stay of enforcement of penalty.

(1)

Within the 30-day period prescribed by subsection (g) of this section, a person who files a petition for judicial review in accordance with subsection (g) of this section may:

(A)

stay enforcement of the penalty by:

(i)

paying the penalty to the court for placement in an escrow account; or

(ii)

giving the court a supersedeas bond that is approved by the court for the amount of the penalty and that is effective until all judicial review of the commissioner's order is final; or

(B)

request the court to stay enforcement of the penalty by:

(i)

filing with the court a sworn affidavit of the person stating that the person is financially unable to pay the penalty and is financially unable to give the supersedeas bond; and

(ii)

sending a copy of the affidavit to the commissioner by certified mail.

(2)

If the commissioner receives a copy of an affidavit under paragraph (1)(B)(ii) of this subsection, the commissioner may file with the court, within five days after the date the copy is received, a contest to the affidavit. In accordance with Health and Safety Code §244.016(c), the court shall hold a hearing on the facts alleged in the affidavit as soon as practicable and shall stay the enforcement of the penalty on finding that the alleged facts are true. The person who files an affidavit has the burden of proving that the person is financially unable to pay the penalty or to give a supersedeas bond.

(i)

Collection of penalty.

(1)

If the person does not pay the penalty and the enforcement of the penalty is not stayed, the department may refer the matter to the attorney general for collection of the penalty.

(2)

As provided by Health and Safety Code, §244.016(d), the attorney general may sue to collect the penalty.

(j)

Decision by court. A decision by the court is governed by Health and Safety Code, §244.016(e), and provides the following:

(1)

If the court sustains the finding that a violation occurred, the court may uphold or reduce the amount of the penalty and order the person to pay the full or reduced amount of the penalty.

(2)

If the court does not sustain the finding that a violation occurred, the court shall order that a penalty is not owed.

(k)

Remittance of penalty and interest and release of supersedeas bond. The remittance of penalty and interest is governed by Health and Safety Code, §244.016(g) and provides the following.

(1)

If the person paid the penalty and if the amount of the penalty is reduced or the penalty is not upheld by the court, the court shall order, when the court's judgment becomes final, that the appropriate amount plus accrued interest be remitted to the person within 30 days after the date that the judgment of the court becomes final.

(2)

The interest accrues at the rate charged on loans to depository institutions by the New York Federal Reserve Bank.

(3)

The interest shall be paid for the period beginning on the date the penalty is paid and ending on the date the penalty is remitted.

(l)

Release of bond. The release of supersedeas bond is governed by Health and Safety Code, §244.016(h) and provides the following:

(1)

If the person gave a supersedeas bond and the penalty is not upheld by the court, the court shall order, when the court's judgment becomes final, the release of the bond.

(2)

If the person gave a supersedeas bond and the amount of the penalty is reduced, the court shall order the release of the bond after the person pays the reduced amount.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003680

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 143. MEDICAL RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGISTS

25 TAC §§143.2, 143.16, 143.17, 143.19, 143.20

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts amendments to §§143.2, 143.16, 143.17, 143.19 and 143.20 concerning the regulation and certification of persons performing radiologic procedures. Sections 143.16, 143.17, 143.19 and 143.20 are adopted with changes to the proposed text as published in the January 28, 2000, issue of the Texas Register (25 TexReg 508). Section 143.2 is adopted without changes, and therefore the section will not be republished. The amendments cover definitions; dangerous or hazardous procedures; mandatory training programs for non-certified technicians; hardship exemptions and alternative training requirements.

The amendments add a definition for pediatric; add pediatric radiography to the list of dangerous or hazardous procedures; change the total number of hours needed to complete the mandatory training program for non-certified technicians; add a new hardship exemption for x-ray equipment operators in a physician's office who are participating in a new alternate training program; make changes to the existing training requirements for podiatric medical assistants; and add alternate training to be completed under a Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's approved program for x-ray operators in a physician's office.

The new hardship will function as an extension to the January 1, 1998, statutory deadline for completing the training for non-certified technicians (NCTs). The new hardship will be issued to physicians having x-ray equipment operators completing a Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's approved program. The Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's Physician's Training program is being added as an alternate training program for placement on the NCT registry. The amendment to the existing training requirements for podiatric medical assistants will allow for out of classroom hours. Additional minor changes were made to update and clarify existing rules.

The following comments were received concerning the proposed sections. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting changes.

Comment: One commenter was concerned because there is not a radiologist or a radiography representative on the Board of Health to evaluate the medical radiologic technologist rules as proposed.

Response: §601.052, Texas Occupations Code provides that the Texas Board of Health may adopt rules necessary to implement this chapter.

Comment: Concerning the definition of pediatric in §143.2, a commenter recommended lowering the age range from fetus to age 18 as proposed, to fetus to age five.

Response: The department disagrees with the commenter regarding the lowering of the age range from fetus to age 18. No change was made as a result of this comment to the definition in §143.2 however, language has been added to §143.16(c)(10) which includes pediatric radiography as a dangerous or hazardous procedure to address the commenters concerns.

Comment: Concerning §143.16, several commenters were in opposition to the removal of pediatric radiography requesting that it remain in the rules.

Response: The department disagrees because pediatric radiography is being added not removed. No change was made as a result of comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.16, numerous comments were received expressing the need for and the approval of adding pediatric radiography to the rules.

Response: The department agrees. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.16(c)(10), one commenter noted that in the proposal invasive cardiovascular technicians were excluded from performing pediatric cardiac catheterization procedures.

Response: The department agrees. The section was amended to include individuals who hold a limited medical radiologic technology certificate with the cardiovascular specialty.

Comment: Concerning §143.16(c)(10), one commenter recommended lowering the age range from fetus to age 18 as proposed, to fetus to age five in the definition of pediatric. The commenter felt that children above the age of five should not be categorized as pediatric for radiography purposes and should not be listed as such under dangerous and hazardous procedures.

Response: The department disagrees. Exposure to radiation at any age is considered dangerous. Language in the proposal addressed action to be taken under emergency conditions. After review of the comment, additional language has been added to address actions to be taken if other extenuating circumstances deemed by the practitioner exist. In both situations documentation would need to be placed in the patient's clinical record. No changes were made as a result of this comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.17, several commenters were against the reduction in hours from 187 to 120 for the non-certified technician training program. The commenters felt that 120 hours are not sufficient.

Response: The department disagrees. An Ad Hoc Committee on Training was established to review the non-certified technician training program for minimum training requirements and recommended a reduction in the hours from 187 to 120 along with recommended prerequisites for admission into the training programs. The Medical Radiologic Technologist Advisory Committee approved the recommendation from the Ad Hoc Committee on Training. Completion of the training program places the individual on the registry of non-certified technicians. An individual listed on the registry must work under the supervision of a licensed practitioner. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.17, several commenters were in agreement for the reduction in hours from 187 to 120 for the training program for non-certified technicians.

Response: The department agrees. The Ad Hoc Committee on Training recommended the reduction in hours. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.17, several comments were received in opposition to reducing the number of training program hours involving methods of patient care and radiation safety and protection.

Response: The department disagrees. The Ad Hoc Committee on Training reviewed the training program and recommended prerequisites which would account for the hours in patient care. The hours in radiation safety will be incorporated in each section of the curriculum. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.17, commenters felt the reduction in hours would compromise patient care, and that the non-certified technician training program was not in the best interests of the patient.

Response: The department disagrees that patient care would be compromised. House Bill 1200 passed by the 74th Texas Legislature in 1995 amended the Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act. House Bill 1200 mandated that the department establish minimum training requirements which a person must complete in order to perform a radiologic procedure on or after January 1, 1998. The department believes that the minimum training requirements are in the best interests of patients. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.19, several commenters were concerned about the hardship exemption for individuals becoming certified by passing the core section of the limited certification examination with the score of 55% in lieu of training.

Response: The hardship exemption for passing the core section of the limited certification examination in lieu of training expired October 1, 1999. Individuals taking the examination needed to be listed on the hardship. Upon passing the examination the individual's name was listed on the registry of non-certified technicians. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.19, several comments were received noting that only 200 individuals took the core section of the limited certified certification examination out of 3000 offices that had trained individuals.

Response: The hardship exemption for passing the core section of the limited certification examination in lieu of training expired October 1, 1999. To be eligible to take this examination an individual needed to be listed under the hardship exemption. An individual was not eligible to apply for the examination on their own. They needed to be listed on the hardship. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.19(c)(5)(K), commenters were concerned about physicians using their own facilities instead of sending the individuals to imaging centers to complete the positioning portion of the program.

Response: The training will be limited to a specific anatomical category and be limited to a specific piece of equipment in the physicians facility. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.19(c)(5)(K), several commenters were against the department sanctioning any specific political group for a hardship exemption taking a training program for x-ray operators, but recommended that all similar groups that represent any licensed practitioner (doctors of medicine osteopathic, podiatric, dental or chiropractic) be included.

Response: The department is not sanctioning any specific group. The Texas Medical Association presented their proposal for this alternate training program for placement on the registry of non-certified technicians. Adding this hardship does not jeopardize any group from applying for existing hardship exemptions. The department has added language that requires the physician, when applying for this particular hardship, to also include justification for application under the existing hardship exemptions.

Comment: Concerning §143.19(c)(5)(K), several commenters were against changing the current hardship exemptions noting that no significant safety or medical concern had demonstrated a need for significant change.

Response: The department disagrees. Adding the hardship exemption for persons who are registered to take the Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's Physician's Training Program for X-ray Operators will allow the department to monitor the effectiveness of the physician's training program. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.19(c)(5)(K), a commenter remarked that the hardship would be on the patient.

Response: The department disagrees. The hardship would require the individuals listed under the hardship to complete training. Completion of the training program places the individual on the registry of non-certified technicians. This training is more than is required under the existing hardship exemptions. No changes were made as a result of this comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), numerous commenters were concerned about public safety and patient care. They noted that academically and clinically untrained technicians would be performing diagnostic procedures on patients. They felt that the individuals would be improperly trained and should not be called x-ray technicians.

Response: The department disagrees. This is a subjective opinion. The department perceives the training received under this hardship will be more valuable than no training at all. The other hardship exemptions do not require training. Individuals completing this training program would be placed on the registry of non-certified technicians, would be registered under the physician's license, and could not perform dangerous or hazardous procedures. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), many commenters indicated that this type of training would be beneficial only to the physician by allowing them to pay low salaries to the personnel doing radiologic procedures.

Response: The department does not have statistics on the salaries of any individuals working in physician offices. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), several commenters expressed their concern for the lack of the training program being monitored and the lack of standardized or third party examination.

Response: The Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act, Texas Occupations Code, Chapter 601 does not provide the authority for an examination. The training program curriculum will provide a written examination after each module. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), several commenters expressed their concern about physicians not being qualified or having adequate training to teach the program.

Response: The department disagrees. The physician has the option of teaching the program or to have a medical radiologic technologist who is also currently credentialed as a radiographer by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists and who meets the instructor qualification as set out in §143.9, Standards for the Approval of Curricula and Instructors, teach the program. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), many comments considered the hours for the training program to be insufficient and that the program would only train an individual to be a "button pusher" and not a technologist qualified to take x-rays.

Response: The department disagrees. After completion of the training program the individual would be placed on the registry of non-certified technicians, be registered with the physicians licensing board and could not perform dangerous or hazardous procedures. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), many medical radiologic technologists commented that their jobs would be put in jeopardy or taken away to be replaced with uneducated personnel.

Response: The department disagrees. There is currently a manpower shortage. Furthermore, individual's completing this alternate training program would not be able to perform in the same capacity as a radiologic technologist. Individuals completing the alternate training program would be placed on the registry of non-certified technicians, be registered with the physicians licensing board, and could not perform dangerous or hazardous procedures. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), one commenter noted that the physician's training program could help to alleviate the shortage of technologists, but that training should be obtained from currently accredited or approved programs for medical radiologic technologists, limited medical radiologic technologists, and non-certified technician training programs.

Response: The department agrees. The legislature mandated training for persons performing radiologic procedures after January 1, 1998, and this program would function as an additional alternate program along with the existing programs for registered nurses, physician assistants and podiatric medical assistants. No change was made as a result of this comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), commenters noted that all procedures are considered dangerous or hazardous and that the program seems to be poorly thought out.

Response: The department disagrees. The program was recommended by the Ad Hoc Committee on Training and approved by the Medical Radiologic Technologist Advisory Committee. The minimum amount of training provided in the program is more than is currently required under existing hardship exemptions. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), several commenters felt that since medical radiologic technologists were required to report continuing education hours that there is a need for continuing education requirements for individuals placed on the registry of non-certified technicians.

Response: The department disagrees. The Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act, Texas Occupations Code, Chapter 601 does not authorize the department to require continuing education for individuals on the registry of non-certified technicians. Continuing education hours are required by some practitioner licensing boards. No changes were made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), one commenter was concerned about uneducated individuals performing barium enemas.

Response: The department agrees but procedures that utilize contrast media are dangerous or hazardous procedures as listed in §143.17 of the rules and may only be performed by a practitioner, medical radiologic technologist or a registered nurse or physician assistant who assists in the performance of the procedure under the supervision of a practitioner. No changes were made as a result of this comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), several commenters were concerned that individuals completing the training would feel that they are qualified to take x-rays in other physician offices or clinics and use unfamiliar equipment.

Response: The department disagrees. The non-certified technician would need to complete additional training if they change employment. Training would be limited to a specific anatomical category and a specific piece of equipment. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), one commenter indicated that a hospital would never hire an individual with training from this alternate program.

Response: The department agrees. An individual completing this program would not be eligible to work in a hospital. The program is physician and site specific. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), several commenters noted that after completion of the physician's training program the individual would be restricted from being employed by another physician unless the individual completed additional training.

Response: The department agrees. The physician's training program is site and equipment specific and would require additional training if the individual sought employment elsewhere. No changes were made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), a commenter remarked that the physician would have to train each time a new employee is hired.

Response: The department agrees. The physician's training program, being site and equipment specific, would require training for new personnel to perform radiologic procedures under the physician's license. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §143.20(f), a commenter was concerned about the physicians' ability to grant a license to individuals who have no formal training.

Response: A physician cannot issue a license to an individual completing the training program. Upon completion of the physician's training program an individual will be placed on the registry of non-certified technicians, be registered under the physician's license and would not be eligible to perform dangerous or hazardous procedures. No changes were made as a result of this comment.

Concerning §§143.17, 143.19, and 143.20 additional minor changes were made to update and clarify the rules due to department staff comments.

The comments on the proposed rules received by the department during the comment period were submitted by Senator Jane Nelson, Texas Society of Radiologic Technologists, Inc., American Society of Radiologic Technologists, Northwest Texas Healthcare Systems, University Medical Center - Lubbock, Tarrant County College students, Angelina College, Center for Rural Health Initiatives, Texas MedClinic, Texas Academy of Family Physicians, Trinity Mother Frances Medical Clinic, Complete Healthcare Services, Texas Nurses Association, Texas Medical Association, Christus St. Elizabeth Family Practice Center, Texas Radiation Advisory Board, North Blanco Family Physicians, Hi-Plains Hospital, East Texas Orthopedics and Sports Medicine, Texas Hospital Association. In addition, numerous individuals commented. All commenters were not against the rules in their entirety, however they expressed concerns, and suggested recommendations for change as discussed in the summary of comments.

The amendments are adopted under the Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act, §601.052, Texas Occupations Code, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules necessary to implement the Act; and the Texas Health and Safety Code §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§143.16.Dangerous or Hazardous Procedures.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to identify the radiologic procedures which are dangerous or hazardous and may only be performed by a practitioner, medical radiologic technologist (MRT) or limited medical radiologic technologist (LMRT). There are specific procedures identified in subsections (b) and (c) of this section which may be performed by a registered nurse (RN) or a physician assistant trained under §143.17 of this title (relating to Mandatory Training Programs for Non-Certified Technicians) or §143.20 of this title (relating to Alternative Training Programs). A person trained under §143.17 or §143.20 of this title and placed on a registry under §143.18 of this title (relating to Registry of Non-Certified Technicians) is not an MRT, LMRT or otherwise certified under the Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act (Act) and shall not perform a dangerous or hazardous procedure identified in this section unless expressly permitted under this section.

(b)

Dangerous procedures identified. Unless otherwise noted, the list of dangerous procedures which may only be performed by a practitioner or MRT are:

(1)

nuclear medicine studies;

(2)

administration of radio-pharmaceuticals, unless performed by an RN or physician assistant who is appropriately trained as authorized by the department's Bureau of Radiation Control for licensure of radioactive materials;

(3)

radiation therapy, including simulation and brachytherapy;

(4)

computed tomography (CT) or any variation thereof;

(5)

interventional radiographic procedures, including angiography, unless performed by an LMRT with a certificate issued in the cardiovascular category;

(6)

fluoroscopy and/or fluorography, unless performed by an LMRT with a certificate issued in the cardiovascular category, or by an RN or physician assistant who assists in the performance of the procedure under the supervision of a practitioner; and

(7)

cineradiography (including digital acquisition techniques), unless performed by an LMRT with a certificate issued in the cardiovascular category.

(c)

Hazardous procedures identified. Unless otherwise noted, the list of hazardous procedures which may only be performed by a practitioner or MRT are:

(1)

conventional tomography;

(2)

skull radiography, excluding anterior-posterior/posterior-anterior (AP/PA), lateral, Townes, Caldwell, and Waters views;

(3)

mobile radiography;

(4)

spine radiography, excluding AP/PA, lateral and lateral flexion/extension views;

(5)

spine radiography, excluding lumbar oblique views performed by an RN or physician assistant who performs the procedure under the supervision of a practitioner;

(6)

shoulder girdle radiographs, excluding AP and lateral shoulder views, AP clavicle and AP scapula, unless performed by an RN or physician assistant who performs the procedure under the direction and supervision of a practitioner;

(7)

pelvic girdle radiographs, excluding AP or PA views;

(8)

sternum radiographs, unless performed by an RN or physician assistant who performs the procedure under the direction and supervision of a practitioner; and

(9)

radiographic procedures which utilize contrast media, unless performed by an RN or physician assistant who assists in the performance of the procedure under the supervision of a practitioner.

(10)

pediatric radiography, excluding extremities, unless performed by an RN or physician assistant who is appropriately trained, as set out in §143.17 or §143.20 of this title or an LMRT with the cardiovascular specialty. If an emergency condition exists which threatens serious bodily injury, protracted loss of use of a bodily function or death of a pediatric patient unless the procedure is performed without delay, or if other extenuating circumstances deemed by the practitioner exist, a pediatric radiographic procedure is also excluded. The emergency condition or extenuating circumstance must be documented by the ordering practitioner in the patient's clinical record and the record must document that a regularly scheduled MRT, LMRT, RN or physician assistant is not reasonably available to perform the procedure.

(d)

Performance of a hazardous procedure by an LMRT. An LMRT may perform a radiologic procedure listed in subsection (c) of this section only if the procedure is within the scope of the LMRT's certification, as described in §143.7(f) of this title (relating to Types of Certificates and Applicant Eligibility).

(e)

Performance of a dangerous or hazardous procedure by a practitioner. This section does not authorize a practitioner to perform a radiologic procedure which is outside the scope of the practitioner's license.

(f)

Dental radiography. This section does not apply to a radiologic procedure involving a dental x-ray machine, including panarex or other equipment designed and manufactured only for use in dental radiography.

(g)

Mammography. In accordance with the Health and Safety Code, §401.421 et seq, mammography is a radiologic procedure which may only be performed by an MRT (not an LMRT) who meets the qualifications set out in §289.230(d)(2) of this title (relating to Mammography). Mammography shall not be performed by a practitioner, an LMRT, an NCT, or any other person.

(h)

Prohibited act. A person who performs a dangerous or hazardous procedure in violation of the Act, §2.13(a)(1) commits a Class B misdemeanor, punishable by up to 180 days in jail or a fine up to $2,000, or both.

(i)

Effective date.

(1)

This section shall become effective on June 1, 1997.

(2)

On or after January 1, 1998, an RN or physician assistant must be trained under §143.17 of this title or §143.20 of this title, or have been approved to perform radiologic procedures under a hardship exemption granted under §143.19 of this title (relating to Hardship Exemptions), in addition to performing the listed procedure under the direction and supervision of a practitioner. Subsections (b)(6) and (c)(8) shall not be construed to authorize an RN or physician assistant to independently perform fluoroscopy, fluorography or procedures utilizing contrast media.

(j)

Student performance of dangerous or hazardous procedures. The procedures identified in this section are not considered dangerous and hazardous for purposes of §2.05(g) of the Act if the person performing the procedures is a student enrolled in a program which meets the minimum standards adopted under §2.05 of the Act and if the person is performing radiologic procedures in an academic or clinical setting as part of the program. Therefore, such students may perform these procedures in such settings. Students may not perform procedures in an employment setting.

§143.17.Mandatory Training Programs for Non-Certified Technicians.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to set out the minimum standards for approval of mandatory training programs, as required by the Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act (Act), §2.05(f), which are intended to train individuals to perform radiologic procedures which have not been identified as dangerous or hazardous. Individuals who complete an approved training program may not use that training toward the educational requirements for a general or limited certificate as set out in §143.7 of this title (relating to Types of Certificates and Applicant Eligibility). Effective January 1, 1998, before a person performs a radiologic procedure, the person must complete all the hours in subsection (d)(1)(A)-(D) of this section, and at least one unit in subsection (d)(2)(A)-(G) of this section.

(b)

Instructor direction required. All hours of the training program completed for the purposes of this section must be live and interactive and directed by an approved instructor. No credit will be given for training completed by self-directed study or correspondence.

(c)

Instructor qualifications.

(1)

An instructor(s) shall have education and not less than six months classroom or clinical experience teaching the subjects assigned, shall meet the standards required by a sponsoring institution, if any, and shall meet at least one or more of the following qualifications:

(A)

be a currently certified MRT who is also currently credentialed as a radiographer by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT);

(B)

be a currently certified LMRT (excluding a temporary certificate) whose limited certificate category(ies) matches the category(ies) of instruction and training; or

(C)

be a practitioner who is in good standing with all appropriate regulatory agencies including, but not limited to, the department, the Texas State Board of Chiropractic Examiners (BCE), Texas State Board of Medical Examiners (BME), or Texas State Board of Podiatry Examiners (BPE), the Texas Department of Human Services, the United States Department of Health and Human Services.

(2)

A limited medical radiologic technologist (LMRT) may not teach, train, or provide clinical instruction in a portion of a training program which is different from the LMRT's level of certification. For example, an LMRT holding a limited certificate in the chest and extremities categories may not participate in the portion of a training program relating to radiologic procedures of the spine. The LMRT may participate in the portions of the training program which are of a general nature and those specific to the specific categories on the limited certificate.

(d)

Training requirements. As of July 1, 2000, in order to successfully complete a program, each student must complete the following minimum training:

(1)

prerequisites recommended for admission include high school graduation or general equivalency diploma; certified medical assistant; graduation from a medical assistant program; or six months full time patient care experience, otherwise determined by the practitioner.

(2)

courses which are fundamental to diagnostic radiologic procedures:

(A)

radiation safety and protection for the patient, self and others-22 classroom hours;

(B)

image production and evaluation-24 classroom hours; and

(C)

radiographic equipment maintenance and operation-16 classroom hours which includes at least six hours of quality control, darkroom, processing, and Texas Control of Radiation Regulations; and

(3)

one or more of the following units of applied human anatomy and radiologic procedures of the:

(A)

skull (five views: Caldwell, Townes, Waters, AP/PA, and lateral)-10 classroom hours;

(B)

chest-eight classroom hours;

(C)

spine-eight classroom hours;

(D)

abdomen, not including any procedures utilizing contrast media- four classroom hours;

(E)

upper extremities-14 classroom hours;

(F)

lower extremities-14 classroom hours; and/or

(G)

podiatric--five classroom hours.

(e)

Application procedures for training programs. An application shall be submitted to the department at least 30 days prior to the starting date of the training program. Official application forms are available from the department and must be completed and signed by an approved instructor, who shall be designated as the training program director. The training program director shall be responsible for the curriculum, the instructors, and determining whether students have successfully completed the training program.

(1)

Official application forms must be executed in the presence of a notary public and shall be accompanied by the application fee in accordance with §143.4 of this title (relating to Fees). Photocopied signatures will not be accepted.

(2)

Application forms and fees shall be mailed to the address indicated on the application materials. The department is not responsible for lost, misdirected, or undeliverable application forms. An application received without the application fee will be returned to the applicant.

(f)

Application materials. The application shall include, at a minimum:

(1)

the beginning date and the anticipated length of the training program;

(2)

the number of programs which will be conducted concurrently and whether programs will be conducted consecutively;

(3)

the number of students anticipated in each program;

(4)

the daily hours of operation;

(5)

the location, mailing address, phone and facsimile numbers of the program;

(6)

the name of the training program director;

(7)

a list of the names of the approved instructors and the topics each will teach, and a list of management and administrative personnel and any practitioners who will participate in conducting the program;

(8)

clearly defined and written policies regarding the criteria for admission, discharge, readmission and completion of the program;

(9)

evidence of a structured pre-planned learning experience with specific outcomes;

(10)

a letter or other documentation from the Texas Workforce Commission, Proprietary Schools Section indicating that the proposed training program has complied with or has been granted exempt status under the Texas Proprietary School Act, Texas Education Code, Chapter 32 and 19 Texas Administrative Code, Chapter 175. If approval has been granted by the Texas Higher Education Coordinating Board, a letter or other documentation from the Texas Workforce Commission, Proprietary Schools Section is not necessary; and

(11)

specific written agreements to:

(A)

provide the training as set out in subsection (d) of this section and provide not more than 75 students per instructor in the classroom;

(B)

advise students that they are prohibited from performing radiologic procedures which have been identified as dangerous or hazardous in accordance with §143.16 of this title (relating to Dangerous or Hazardous Procedures) unless they become an LMRT, medical radiologic technologist (MRT) or a practitioner;

(C)

use written and oral examinations to periodically measure student progress;

(D)

keep an accurate record of each student's attendance and participation in the program, accurate evaluation instruments and grades for not less than five years. Such records shall be made available upon request by the department or any governmental agency having authority;

(E)

issue to each student who successfully completes the program a certificate or written statement including the name of the student, name of the program, dates of attendance and the types of radiologic procedures covered in the program completed by the student;

(F)

retain an accurate copy for not less than five years and submit an accurate copy of the document described in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph to the department within 30 days of the issuance of the document to the student; and

(G)

permit site inspections by employees or representatives of the department to determine compliance with this section.

(g)

Application approval.

(1)

The administrator shall be responsible for reviewing all applications for training program approval. The administrator shall approve any application which is in compliance with this section. A letter of approval shall be issued for a period of one year.

(2)

A program shall be denied approval if the application is incomplete or not submitted as set out in this section. The training program director shall be notified in accordance with §113.1 of this title (relating to Processing Permits for Special Health Services Professionals).

(3)

If approval is proposed to be denied, the training program director shall be notified in writing of the proposed denial and shall be given an opportunity to request a formal hearing within ten days of the training program director's receipt of the written notice from the department. The formal hearing shall be conducted according to the department's formal hearing procedures in Chapter 1 of this title (relating to Texas Board of Health). If no hearing is requested, the right to a hearing is waived and the proposed action shall be taken.

(h)

Application processing. The department shall use the same process as described in §143.6(f) of this title (relating to Application Requirements and Procedures), except the time periods are as follows:

(1)

letter of acceptance--30 days;

(2)

letter of application deficiency--30 days;

(3)

letter of approval--42 days; and

(4)

letter of denial of approval--42 days.

(i)

Renewal.

(1)

The training program director shall be responsible for renewing the approval of the training program on or before the anniversary date of the initial application.

(2)

The department shall send a renewal notice to the training program at least 60 days prior to the anniversary date. The department is not responsible for lost, misdirected, undeliverable or misplaced mail.

(3)

The renewal is effective if the official renewal form and fee in accordance with §143.4 of this title are postmarked or delivered to the department on or before the anniversary date.

(4)

Failure to submit the renewal form and renewal fee in accordance with §143.4 of this title by the deadline will result in the expiration of the training program's approval.

(5)

A training program which does not renew the approval shall cease representing the program as an approved training program. The program director shall notify, or cause the notification of currently enrolled students that the training program is no longer approved under this section. The notification shall be in writing and must be issued within ten days of the expiration of the approval.

(6)

The training program may reapply for approval and meet the then current requirements for approval under this section.

§143.19.Hardship Exemptions.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to set out the procedure for applying for a hardship exemption under the Medical Radiologic Technologist Certification Act (Act), §2.05(i) and (j) for a hospital, federally qualified health center (FQHC), or practitioner.

(b)

General.

(1)

A hospital, FQHC or practitioner may apply to the Texas Department of Health (department)for an exemption from employing a medical radiologic technologist (MRT), limited medical radiologic technologist (LMRT), or non-certified technician (NCT).

(2)

The applicant must demonstrate a hardship as described in subsection (c)(5) of this section in employing an MRT, LMRT, or NCT.

(3)

The applicant shall not allow a person who is not an MRT, LMRT, or NCT to perform a radiologic procedure until the department grants a hardship exemption.

(4)

A hardship exemption granted by the department does not constitute licensure, certification, registration, or authorization to perform a dangerous or hazardous radiologic procedure or mammography.

(c)

Required application materials.

(1)

The applicant must apply for a hardship on the forms prescribed by the department. The date of application shall be the date the application is postmarked. If there is no visible postmark, or if the application is hand-delivered, the application date shall be the date the administrator received the application.

(2)

The application must be accompanied by documentation clearly indicating that the applicant is a licensed hospital, FQHC or licensed practitioner. A copy of the current hospital license, certificate of qualification issued to the FQHC, or current license of the practitioner shall be acceptable documentation.

(3)

If the application is from a hospital or FQHC, the administrator or chief executive officer of the hospital or FQHC must sign the application form. If the applicant is a practitioner, the practitioner must sign the application form.

(4)

The application must include a list of the person(s) performing radiologic procedures who is not a MRT, LMRT, or NCT

(5)

The application shall be accompanied by one or more of the following:

(A)

if the applicant is unable to attract or retain an MRT or LMRT, a sworn affidavit describing in narrative form the applicant's attempts to attract and retain an MRT or LMRT at a comparable salary for the area;

(B)

if the applicant is located more than 50 highway miles from the nearest school of medical radiologic technology approved in accordance with §143.9 of this title (relating to Standards for the Approval of Curricula and Instructors), a sworn affidavit describing in narrative form the physical address of the nearest school of medical radiologic technology; the physical address of the applicant hospital, FQHC, or primary practice location of the practitioner; and the actual distance in highway miles between the school and the applicant hospital, FQHC, or practitioner's primary practice. The applicant shall include a map of the area clearly indicating the locations of each entity;

(C)

if the nearest school of medical radiologic technology approved in accordance with §143.9 of this title has a waiting list of school applicants due to a lack of faculty or space, a sworn affidavit from the applicant indicating that admissions to the school are pending because of a lack of faculty or space;

(D)

if the need for graduates in medical radiologic technology of the applicant exceeds the number of graduates from the nearest school of medical radiologic technology approved in accordance with §143.9 of this title, a sworn affidavit from the applicant indicating that the number of graduates from the nearest school does not meet the applicant's needs for radiologic technologists;

(E)

if emergency conditions have occurred during the 90 days prior to making application for the hardship exemption, a sworn affidavit from the applicant describing the emergency conditions, the hardship(s) the emergency conditions have created and how long the hardship(s) is anticipated to continue. For the purposes of this subparagraph, emergency conditions may include a disaster, epidemic, or other catastrophic event;

(F)

documentation that the United States government has declared a state of war;

(G)

if the equipment operated is a bone densitometry unit(s) which utilizes x-radiation, a sworn affidavit from the applicant indicating the name of the person operating the equipment and proof that the person is a certified densitometry technologist in good standing with the International Society for Clinical Densitometry (ISCD) or has completed at least 20 hours of training as follows:

(i)

specific bone densitometry equipment utilizing x-radiation to be used by the operator--16 hours presented by a medical radiologic technologist (MRT) or an equipment applications specialist knowledgeable of the specific equipment to be utilized; and

(ii)

radiation safety and protection for the patient, self and others--four hours presented by an MRT or a licensed medical physicist within the 24-month period prior to application or reapplication for a hardship exemption;

(H)

if the applicant uses only a hand-held fluoroscope with a maximum operating capability of 65 kilovolts and 1 milliampere, or a similar type of x-ray unit for imaging upper extremities only, at the location indicated on the application form and the applicant believes that the radiation produced by the radiographic equipment represents a minimal threat to the patient and the operator of the equipment, the following is required to be submitted:

(i)

a copy of the current certificate of registration issued by the Bureau of Radiation Control; and

(ii)

a sworn affidavit describing the equipment used; the types of radiographs performed; the training completed by the operator of the equipment within the 24-month period prior to application or reapplication for a hardship exemption; the date(s) the training was completed by the operator; the radiation safety measures taken for the patient, operator and others; the level or amount of supervision provided by an MRT or a practitioner(s) to the operator while performing the radiographic procedure; and the equipment manufacturer's specifications for the diagnostic radiographic equipment utilized at the location indicated on the application form, including the maximum operating capability;

(I)

if the applicant employs, for the purpose of performing radiologic procedures, a person registered in accordance with rules adopted under §2.08 of the Act on or before January 1, 1998, a sworn affidavit indicating the name(s) of the person(s) and proof that the person(s) was registered on or before January 1, 1998. Such affidavit shall be on a form attesting that the training under §143.17 of this title (relating to Mandatory Training Programs for Non- Certified Technicians) or §143.20 of this title (relating to Alternate Training Requirements) causes a fiscal hardship for the applicant. The affidavit shall include a statement that the person(s) performing radiologic procedures is adequately supervised and trained for the procedures being performed. If the applicant is a practitioner or FQHC, the person who will perform radiologic procedures must be registered in accordance with rules adopted under §2.08 of the Act at the time of application for the hardship exemption. If the person who will perform radiologic procedures is not an RN, the name of the practitioner for whom the radiologic procedures are performed, as named on the current registration permit, shall match the name or location of the applicant for whom the hardship is granted;

(J)

if the applicant is a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Health Care Organizations or which participates in the federal Medicare cost reimbursement program, an original letter on hospital letterhead stating the name(s) of the person(s) performing radiologic procedures in compliance with § 2.07(d) of the Act on or before January 1, 1998. The letter shall be accompanied by a sworn affidavit from the applicant attesting that the training under §143.17 or §143.20 of this title causes a fiscal hardship for the applicant. The affidavit shall include a statement that the person(s) performing radiologic procedures is adequately supervised and trained for the procedures being performed;

(K)

if the applicant employs for the purpose of performing radiologic procedures, a person who is registered to take the Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's Physician's Training Program for X-ray Operators approved by the department under §143.20 of this title, a sworn affidavit including justification for application under one of the requirements described in paragraph (5)(A)-(J) of this subsection. The following items must be submitted:

(i)

the name(s), date of birth, and social security number of the person(s) who will perform radiologic procedures pursuant to this hardship exemption;

(ii)

the name of the facility where the training program will be taken, the date the program will begin and the anticipated date of completion;

(iii)

the name(s) of the certified medical radiologic technologist instructor meeting the requirements set out in §143.17(c) of this title;

(iv)

the name(s) of the company and the name of the person(s) who will be the designated equipment applications specialist knowledgeable of the specific equipment to be utilized; and

(v)

a list of the anatomical categories to be included in the training.

(6)

All application materials and information are subject to verification by the department.

(7)

The department shall send a written notice listing the additional materials required to an applicant whose application is incomplete. An application not completed within 30 days after the date of the written notice shall be invalid unless the applicant has advised the department of a valid reason for the delay.

(d)

Application approval.

(1)

The administrator shall be responsible for reviewing all applications. The administrator shall approve any application which is in compliance with this section and which properly documents applicant eligibility.

(2)

If granted by the department, a letter of exemption shall be issued for a period of one year.

(e)

Disapproved applications.

(1)

The department shall disapprove the application if the applicant has not met the application requirements set out in this section or has failed or refused to complete or submit any form or documentation required by the department to verify the eligibility for the exemption.

(2)

If the administrator determines that the application should not be approved, the administrator shall give the applicant written notice of the reason for the disapproval. The applicant may appeal the decision to the associate commissioner over the administrator by submitting a written request within ten days after receipt of the written notice of the reason(s) for the disapproval.

(3)

Based upon the application and any additional information submitted by the applicant or the administrator, the associate commissioner shall approve or disapprove the application.

(4)

An applicant whose application has been disapproved under this subsection shall be permitted to reapply after a period of not less than one year from the date of the disapproval and shall submit a new application and supporting information. The applicant may reapply for an exemption any time the basis for the exemption application changes.

(f)

Application processing. The department shall use the same process as described in §143.6(f) of this title (relating to Application Requirements and Procedures), except the time periods are as follows:

(1)

letter of acceptance--30 days;

(2)

letter of application deficiency--30 days;

(3)

letter of approval--42 days; and

(4)

letter of denial of exemption--42 days.

(g)

Reapplication for hardship exemption.

(1)

The hospital, FQHC, or a practitioner must reapply annually for the exemption and meet the then current requirements for a hardship exemption.

(2)

A hospital, FQHC, or a practitioner who does not reapply for an exemption shall not allow a person to perform a radiologic procedure unless the person is a practitioner, MRT, LMRT, or NCT.

§143.20.Alternate Training Requirements.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section is to set out the minimum standards for registered nurses (RNs), physician assistants, podiatric medical assistants (PMAs) and x-ray equipment operators in a physician's office . .

(b)

Instructor direction required. All hours of the training program completed for the purposes of this section must be live and interactive and directed by an approved instructor. Distance learning activities and audiovisual teleconferencing may be utilized, provided these include two-way, interactive communications which are broadcast or transmitted at the actual time of occurrence. Appropriate on-site supervision of persons participating in the distance learning activities or teleconferencing shall be provided by the approved training program. No credit will be given for training completed by self-directed study or correspondence. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the out of classroom training requirements for podiatric medical assistants and x-ray equipment operators in a physician's offices.

(1)

Effective January 1, 1998, before an RN or physician assistant performs a radiologic procedure, the RN or physician assistant must complete the hours stated in subsection (d) of this section, or the hours stated in §143.17 of this title (relating to Mandatory Training Programs for Non-Certified Technicians).

(2)

Effective January 1, 1998, before a PMA performs a radiologic procedure, the PMA must complete the hours stated in subsection (e) of this section, or the hours stated in §143.17(d) of this title concerning podiatric radiologic procedures.

(3)

Individuals who complete training approved under this section may not use that training toward the educational requirements for a general or limited certificate as set out in §143.7 of this title (relating to Types of Certificates and Eligibility).

(c)

Approved instructors.

(1)

For purposes of this section, an individual is approved by the Texas Department of Health (department) to teach in a training program if the individual meets the requirements of §143.9(h)(1)-(2) of this title (relating to Standards for the Approval of Curricula and Instructors). The application for the training program must demonstrate that the instructors meet the qualifications. No application for individual instructor approval is required.

(2)

A limited medical radiologic technologist (LMRT) may not teach, train, or provide clinical instruction in a portion of a training program which is different from the LMRT's level of certification. For example, an LMRT holding a limited certificate in the chest and extremities categories may not participate in the portion of a training program relating to radiologic procedures of the spine. The LMRT may participate in the portions of the training program which are of a general nature and those specific to the specific categories on the limited certificate.

(d)

Training requirements for registered nurses and physician assistants. A training program preparing RNs and physician assistants to perform radiologic procedures shall be designed to build on the health care knowledge base and skills acquired through completion of an educational program that qualifies the person for licensure as an RN or physician assistant. The training shall consist of:

(1)

a minimum of 30 classroom hours of coursework that are fundamental to diagnostic radiologic procedures covering all of the following items:

(A)

radiation safety and protection for the patient, self, and others--ten classroom hours;

(B)

radiologic equipment--ten classroom hours;

(C)

image production and evaluation--ten classroom hours; and

(2)

one or more of the following units of classroom instruction in radiologic procedures:

(A)

chest and abdomen (non-pediatric)--eight classroom hours;

(B)

spine (non-pediatric)--ten classroom hours;

(C)

skull (non-pediatric)--eight classroom hours;

(D)

extremities (including pediatric)--eight classroom hours; and

(3)

if the RN or physician assistant will perform pediatric radiologic procedures other than extremities, a minimum of two classroom hours for each of the areas identified in paragraph (2)(A)-(C) of this subsection.

(e)

Training requirements for podiatric medical assistants PMAs.

(1)

In order to successfully complete a program, a PMA must complete the following training:

(A)

radiation safety and protection for the patient, self, and others-five classroom hours and five out of classroom hours;

(B)

radiographic equipment used in podiatric medicine, including safety standards, operation, and maintenance-one classroom hour and two out of classroom hours;

(C)

podiatric radiologic procedures, imaging production and evaluation-one classroom hour and four out of classroom hours; and

(D)

methods of patient care and management essential to radiologic procedures, excluding CPR, BCLS, ACLS and similar subjects-one classroom hour and one out of classroom hour.

(2)

Successful completion of PMA training allows the PMA to perform radiologic procedures only under the instruction or direction of a podiatrist.

(3)

The out of classroom training hours require successful completion of learning objectives approved by the department as verified by the supervising podiatrist.

(f)

Training requirements for an x-ray equipment operator in a physician's office.

(1)

In order to successfully complete a program, an x-ray equipment operator in a physician's office must complete the Texas Medical Association's/Texas Osteopathic Medical Association's Physician's Training Program for X-ray Operators.

(2)

Successful completion of the x-ray operators training program allows the x- ray operator to perform radiologic procedures only under the instruction or direction of a physician.

(g)

Application procedures for training programs. The Texas Department of Health (department) shall use the same process as described in §143.17(e) of this title.

(h)

Application materials. The department shall require the same materials as described in §143.17(f) of this title.

(i)

Application approval. The department shall use the same process as described in §143.17(g) of this title.

(j)

Application processing. The department shall use the same process as described in §143.17(h) of this title.

(k)

Renewal. The department shall use the same process as described in §143.17(i) of this title.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 24, 2000.

TRD-200003685

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 13, 2000

Proposal publication date: January 28, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 157. EMERGENCY MEDICAL CARE

Subchapter B. EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES PROVIDER LICENSES

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal and new §157.25, concerning the statewide protocol required for use of an Out-Of-Hospital Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order and DNR form. New §157.25 is adopted with changes to the text as published in the March 10, 2000,Texas Register (25 TexReg 1954). The repeal is adopted without changes.

In accordance with Senate Bill 1260, 76th Legislature, 1999, the department is required to amend rule §157.25 to coincide with the consolidation of Chapters 672 and 674 of the Health and Safety Code; and Chapter 135, Civil Practice and Remedies Code. These chapters used the same terminology and provisions but maintained inconsistencies that were confusing to individuals who wanted to develop advance directives and confusing to providers who would carry out the advance directives. Senate Bill 1260 amends the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 773 and designates Health and Safety Code, Title 2, Chapter 166 as the Advance Directives Act. The DNR form was also changed to follow those same directions.

The department is making the following minor changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §157.25(h)(2), minor changes were made to the layout of the DNR form to facilitate use by the public.

Change: Concerning §157.25(h)(2), the size of the DNR form was changed from "8-1/2 inches by 14 inches" to "8-1/2 inches by 11 inches".

The following comment was received concerning the proposed section.

Comment: Concerning the DNR form, one commenter questioned the need for dual signatures on the DNR form, but approved the rule as proposed.

Response: The need for dual signatures was mandated by statute. No change was made as a result of the comment.

The comment was sent by the Texas State Board of Medical Examiners (board). The commenter was not against the rule in its entirety; however a representative of the board expressed concerns, asked questions and suggested recommendations for changes as discussed in the summary of comments.

25 TAC §157.25

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 773, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules to implement the Emergency Medical Services Act; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 26, 2000.

TRD-200003758

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 15, 2000

Proposal publication date: March 10, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 773, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules to implement the Emergency Medical Services Act; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§157.25.Out-of-Hospital Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order.

(a)

Purpose. The purpose of this section shall be to establish a statewide DNR protocol as required in the Health and Safety Code, Title 2, Chapter 166.

(b)

DNR order. A DNR order may be issued by an attending physician for any patient. That attending physician has responsibility for ensuring that the form is filled out in its entirety and that the information regarding the existence of a DNR order is entered into the patient's medical record.

(c)

Protocol development. A DNR protocol in accordance with this section, shall apply to all out-of-hospital settings including cardiac arrests which occur during interfacility transport. The protocol shall include the following:

(1)

a copy of the Texas Department of Health (department) standardized DNR form listing the designated treatments that shall be withdrawn or withheld. Those treatments shall be:

(A)

cardiopulmonary resuscitation;

(B)

advanced airway management;

(C)

artificial ventilation;

(D)

defibrillation; and

(E)

transcutaneous cardiac pacing.

(2)

an explanation of the patient identification process to include an option to use a department-standardized identification device such as a necklace or bracelet; and

(3)

an on-site DNR dispute resolution process which includes contacting an appropriate physician.

(d)

Recordkeeping. Records shall be maintained on each incident in which an out-of- hospital DNR order or DNR identification device is encountered by responding healthcare professionals, and the number of cases where there is an on-site revocation of the DNR order shall be recorded.

(1)

The data documented should include:

(A)

an assessment of patient's physical condition;

(B)

whether an identification device or a DNR form was used to confirm DNR status and patient identification number;

(C)

any problems relating to the implementation of the DNR order;

(D)

the name of the patient's attending physician; and

(E)

the full name, address, telephone number, and relationship to patient of any witness used to identify the patient.

(2)

If the patient is transported, the original DNR order or a copy of the original order will be kept with the patient.

(3)

Copies of the original DNR order may be put on file with concerned parties, and the original order shall remain in the possession of the patient, a legal guardian, or the healthcare facility responsible for the patient's care.

(4)

At the time of relicensure, the out-of-hospital provider shall submit a report to the Bureau of Emergency Management with the following information:

(A)

number of times personnel have been presented with DNR documentation;

(B)

number of times there was a problem and the DNR order could not be honored; and

(C)

any problems that were encountered using the standardized form.

(e)

Out-of-state DNR Orders. Personnel may accept an out-of-hospital DNR order or device that has been executed in any other state, if there is no reason to question the authenticity of the order or device.

(f)

Failure to honor a DNR order. If there are any indications of unnatural or suspicious circumstances, the provider shall begin resuscitation efforts until such time as a physician directs otherwise.

(g)

Pregnant persons. A person may not withhold the designated treatments listed in subsection (c)(1) from a person known by responding healthcare professionals to be pregnant.

(h)

DNR Form. The Bureau of Emergency Management or their appointees shall furnish DNR forms to physicians, clinics, hospitals, nursing homes, hospices and home health agencies throughout the state upon request.

(1)

The form shall contain all the information as prescribed in the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 166.

(2)

The form shall be 8-1/2 inches by 11 inches, printed front and back, and in the format specified by the board as follows.

Figure: 25 TAC §157.25(h)(2)

(i)

Identification devices. A vendor under contract with the Texas Department of Health shall make the identification bracelet and necklace according to the following specifications.

(1)

The bracelet shall be made of stainless steel in 8 inches length with an engravable section which is 2 inches long, 0.5 inches wide and 0.060 inches thick. The statewide standardized DNR logo will be on the front in red and white colors as specified.

(2)

The necklace shall be made of stainless steel 1 inch in diameter and 0.060 inches thick. There will be a stainless steel chain approximately 27 inches in length permanently attached without a clasp. The statewide standardized DNR logo will be on the front in red and white colors as specified.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on May 26, 2000.

TRD-200003759

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: June 15, 2000

Proposal publication date: March 10, 2000

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236