TITLE health-services

Part I. Texas Department of Health

Chapter 13. Health Planning and Resource Development

Subchapter E. Advisory Committee

25 TAC §13.51

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts an amendment to §13.51 concerning the Hospital Data Advisory Committee (committee) with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12082). The committee provides advice to the Texas Board of Health (board) and the department on hospital reporting requirements and on interpretation and evaluation of data received.

In 1993, the Texas Legislature passed Senate Bill 383 (now codified in the Government Code, Chapter 2110) which requires that each state agency adopt rules to establish advisory committees. The rules must state the purpose of each committee, describe the tasks of the committee, describe the manner in which the committee will report to the agency, and establish a date on which the committee will be automatically abolished unless the governing body of the agency affirmatively votes to continue the committee's existence.

In 1995, the board established a rule relating to the Hospital Data Advisory Committee. The rule states that the committee will automatically be abolished on May 1, 1999. The board has now reviewed and evaluated the committee and has determined that the committee should continue in existence until May 1, 2003.

This section amends provisions relating to the operation of the committee. Specifically, language is revised to reference the Government Code; to continue the committee until May 1, 2003; to address changes to the composition of the committee; to clarify that members holdover until their replacement is appointed; to require that the presiding officer and the assistant presiding officer of the committee will be selected by the chairman of the board for a term of two years; to allow a temporary vacancy in the office of assistant presiding officer to be filled by vote of the committee until appointment by the chairman of the board occurs; to clarify that the committee is prohibited from holding an executive session (closed meeting) for any reason; to clarify that the committee and its members may not participate in legislative activity in the name of the board, the department, or the committee except with certain approval; and to reference reimbursement of a member's expenses if authorized by the General Appropriations Act or budget execution process. These changes will clarify procedures for the committee and emphasize the advisory nature of the committee.

The department is making the following minor changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §13.51(f)(1)(D), the language was revised to delete the reference to consumer organizations so that consumers need not be connected with any specific organization.

Change: Concerning §13.51(f)(2), the language was revised to clarify that existing members who no longer qualify under the new committee composition shall be removed from the committee when the two new consumer members are appointed.

Change: Concerning §13.51(g), the language was revised to clarify that members holdover past the expiration of their term until their successor is appointed.

The amendment is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §11.016, which allows the board to establish advisory committees; the Government Code, Chapter 2110, which sets standards for the evaluation of advisory committees by the agencies for which they function; and the Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the board with authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law upon the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§13.51.Hospital Data Advisory Committee.

(a)

(No change.)

(b)

Applicable law. The committee is subject to the Government Code, Chapter 2110, concerning state agency advisory committees.

(c)-(d)

(No change.)

(e)

Review and duration. By May 1, 2003, the board will initiate and complete a review of the committee to determine whether the committee should be continued, consolidated with another committee, or abolished. If the committee is not continued or consolidated, the committee shall be abolished on that date.

(f)

Composition.

(1)

The committee shall be composed of 12 members appointed by the board as follows:

(A)

four members from the hospital industry;

(B)

two members from the insurance industry;

(C)

two members from state agencies as follows:

(i)

Texas Department of Mental Health and Mental Retardation; and

(ii)

Texas Commission on Alcohol and Drug Abuse;

(D)

four consumer members.

(2)

Since the composition of the committee as it existed on March 1, 1999, is changed under this section, existing members shall continue to serve until the board appoints the two new consumer members under the new composition. At that time, existing members who no longer qualify under paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be removed from the committee.

(g)

Terms of office. The term of office of each member shall be six years. Members shall serve after expiration of their term until their successor is appointed.

(1)

Members shall be appointed for staggered terms so that the terms of a substantially equivalent number of members will expire on December 31 of each even-numbered year.

(2)

(No change.)

(h)

Officers. The chairman of the board shall appoint a presiding officer and an assistant presiding officer to begin serving on May 1 of each odd-numbered year.

(1)

Each officer shall serve until April 30th of each odd-numbered year. Each officer may holdover until his or her replacement is appointed by the chairman of the board.

(2)

(No change.)

(3)

The assistant presiding officer shall perform the duties of the presiding officer in case of the absence or disability of the presiding officer. If the office of presiding officer becomes vacant, the assistant presiding officer will serve until a successor is appointed to complete the unexpired portion of the term of the office of presiding officer.

(4)

If the office of assistant presiding officer becomes vacant, it may be filled temporarily by vote of the committee until a successor is appointed by the chairman of the board.

(5)-(6)

(No change.)

(7)

The presiding officer and assistant presiding officer serving on January 1, 1999, will continue to serve until the chairman of the board appoints their successors.

(i)

Meetings. The committee shall meet only as necessary to conduct committee business.

(1)-(2)

(No change.)

(3)

The committee is not a "governmental body" as defined in the Open Meetings Act. However, in order to promote public participation, each meeting of the committee shall be announced and conducted in accordance with the Open Meetings Act, Texas Government Code, Chapter 551, with the exception that the provisions allowing executive sessions shall not apply.

(4)-(7)

(No change.)

(j)

Attendance. Members shall attend committee meetings as scheduled. Members shall attend meetings of subcommittees to which the member is assigned.

(1)-(3)

(No change.)

(k)-(m)

(No change.)

(n)

Statement by members.

(1)

The board, the department, and the committee shall not be bound in any way by any statement or action on the part of any committee member except when a statement or action is in pursuit of specific instructions from the board, department, or committee.

(2)

The committee and its members may not participate in legislative activity in the name of the board, the department, or the committee except with approval through the department's legislative process. Committee members are not prohibited from representing themselves or other entities in the legislative process.

(o)

Reports to board. The committee shall file an annual written report with the board.

(1)

The report shall list the meeting dates of the committee and any subcommittees, the attendance records of its members, a brief description of actions taken by the committee, a description of how the committee has accomplished the tasks given to the committee by the board, the status of any rules which were recommended by the committee to the board, and anticipated activities of the committee for the next year.

(2)-(3)

(No change.)

(p)

Reimbursement for expenses. In accordance with the requirements set forth in the Government Code, Chapter 2110, a committee member may receive reimbursement for the member's expenses incurred for each day the member engages in official committee business if authorized by the General Appropriations Act or budget execution process.

(1)-(5)

(No change.)

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 19, 1999.

TRD-9901674

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 8, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 117. End Stage Renal Disease Facilities

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts amendments to §§117.1 - 117.3, 117.32 - 117.34, 117.41, 117.43 - 117.45, 117.65, and 117.81; the repeal of §§117.11 - 117.16 and 117.82 - 117.85; and new §§117.11 - 117.17, 117.46, and 117.82-117.86 concerning the licensing of end stage renal disease (ESRD) facilities. Amended §§117.2, 117.34, 117.43 - 117.44, and 117.65, and new §§117.12 - 117.14, 117.16, 117.84 - 117.86 are adopted with changes to the text as proposed in the October 30, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg, 11043). Repealed §§117.11 - 117.16 and §§117.82 - 117.85, amended §§117.1, 117.3, 117.32 - 117.33, 117.41, 117.45, 117.81, and new §§117.11, 117.15, 117.17, 117.46, and 117.82 - 117.83 are adopted without change and will not be republished.

The sections cover the general provisions; application and issuance of a license; minimum standards for design and space, equipment, water treatment, reuse, and sanitary and hygienic conditions; minimum standards for patient care and treatment; provisions for dialysis technicians; and corrective action plan and enforcement provisions.

The sections represent the development of new language to address problems and areas of concern identified by the ESRD Task Force which was established in accordance with the General Appropriations Act, Rider 53, 1997. Rider 53 mandated the 12-member task force to review the implementation of ESRD facility licensing rules in order to identify problems and recommend changes; review survey outcomes and costs associated with administering the ESRD licensing program; and clarify the function of a licensed vocational nurse in an ESRD facility. Serving on the ESRD Task Force are two patient representatives and one representative from each of the following constituencies: ESRD Network of Texas, Inc.; renal dietitians; registered nurses; physicians; social workers; licensed vocational nurses; ESRD facility administrators; mechanical technicians; patient care technicians; and the department.

Subchapter A, §§117.1 - 117.3, establishes the general provisions for ESRD facilities. Section 117.1 states the purpose of the rules. The amendment to §117.1 adds subsection (d) to clarify that a license is required for an ESRD facility which is not exempt from licensure under the Health and Safety Code, §251.012. Section 117.2 defines words and terms used throughout the rules. The definitions are numbered in compliance with Texas Register format requirements (1 TAC §91.1, effective February 17, 1998). New definitions are added for "administrator," "affiliate," "change of ownership," "corrective action plan," "health care facility," "hospital," "manager," "monitor," "notarized copy(ies)," "patient," "quality," "quality assurance," "quality management," and "working day." The definition of "applicant" was amended to clarify that this is the person in whose name the license is issued. The definitions of "licensed vocational nurse" and "registered nurse" were amended to specify the statutes under which these nurses are licensed. In response to a comment and to conform with the Board of Nurse Examiners rules (22 TAC §217.12(d)), the definition of "charge nurse" was deleted. Section 117.3 clarifies the calculation of a renewal license fee and increases the change of ownership license fee for some facilities from $1,000 to $1,500 and decreases the fee from $2,000 to $1,500 for other facilities. Currently, a new facility owner is required to pay a $1,000 license fee if the survey is waived prior to issuing a license to the new owner or a $2,000 license fee if a survey is not waived. The amendment to the rule eliminates the $1,000 and $2,000 license fees and requires a flat $1,500 fee for all applications for a change of ownership regardless of whether a survey is done. In 1997 and 1998, approximately 16 facilities per year filed for a change of ownership. Approximately one-half of these facilities were surveyed prior to receiving a new license in the new owner's name.

New Subchapter B, §§117.11 - 117.17, replaces existing §§117.11 - 117.16, and establishes the application procedures and provisions for issuance of a license. The sections were rewritten to provide clarity and consistency with requirements for other facilities licensed by the department, and to remove language applicable only to the first year of this licensing program. The following is a summary of changes to these sections.

New §117.11 contains language in existing §§117.11 and 117.12 while defining requirements for the various types of licenses issued by the department. This section contains provisions applicable to any applicant for any type of license.

New §117.12 concerning application and issuance of temporary initial license and first annual license contains language currently in §§117.11 and 117.12 to describe the requirements for applications for a temporary initial license and the first annual license. The new section requires additional information to be included on the license application to be consistent with requirements for other facilities licensed by the department and reorganizes the application requirements to clarify the steps of the review process.

New §117.13 concerning application and issuance of annual renewal license replaces existing §117.12 and retains much of the requirements in existing §117.12. Some of these requirements were reorganized to provide the reader with a better understanding of the renewal process and the department's expectations.

New §117.14 concerning change of ownership or services replaces existing §117.13 and was expanded to include requirements for a change in services provided by a facility. For the purpose of this section, a change in service includes a facility closure; construction, renovation, or modification of a facility's physical plant; a change in a facility's telephone number or mailing address; an increase in the number of dialysis stations in a facility; and the provision of a new service (e.g., peritoneal dialysis). In addition, the new section contains requirements for the department in responding to a facility's request for an increase in dialysis stations or services.

New §117.15 concerning time periods for processing and issuing a license replaces existing §117.14. The text in the new section is unchanged from current §117.14.

New §117.16 concerning inspections replaces existing §117.15. The new section reorganizes existing inspection provisions; describes in more detail the department's expectations from a facility before and during an inspection; outlines the different types of inspections by the department; outlines in detail the inspection procedure and the department's evaluation of compliance; and provides a facility with procedures for challenging a deficiency cited by the department, including time frames imposed upon the department in responding to such a challenge.

New §117.17 covers optional plan review and inspection and replaces existing 117.16. The text in the new section is unchanged from existing §117.16, except that the text in subsection (b) was changed for better readability.

Subchapter C, §§117.32 - 117.34, establishes the minimum standards for equipment, water treatment, reuse, and sanitary and hygienic conditions. The sections were amended as follows.

Section 117.32 covers the minimum standards for equipment. The amendment adds a requirement that all equipment be operated in conformance to manufacturer's specifications and a requirement that at least one back-up dialysis machine be completely operational during a facility's hours of treatment.

Section 117.33 covers the minimum standards for water treatment and reuse. The amendment clarifies that water treatment components that could affect the quality of the product water must not be located after the quality monitor sensing cell, and requires the appointment of a medical director for a centralized reprocessing facility.

Section 117.34 covers the minimum standards for sanitary conditions and hygienic practices. The amendment clarifies provisions relating to the hepatitis B screening of patients. The amendments include new language applicable to a patient new to dialysis or returning to a facility after extended hospitalization or absence of 30 days or longer. Currently, the department requires patients to be screened for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) one month prior to or at the time of admission. New language in subsection (d)(2)(B)(i) allows the facility to admit a patient who has a known anti-HBs status of at least 10 milli-international units per milliliter within the previous 12 months, without requiring current HBsAg screening. New language in subsection (d)(2)(C)(iv) conforms to the new language in subsection (d)(2)(B)(i). This language recognizes the increase in provision of the hepatitis vaccine to dialysis patients and the resultant reduced need for hepatitis screening and is consistent with current federal Centers for Disease Control guidelines.

Subchapter D, §§117.41 and 117.43 - 117.46, establishes the minimum standards for patient care and treatment. The sections were amended as follows.

Section 117.41 covers minimum standards for quality assurance for patient care by establishing specific quality assurance system requirements for facilities. Currently, the department requires a facility to adopt, implement, and enforce a quality assurance program based on the May 8, 1996, edition of the Criteria and Standards, Dialysis Facility Quality Management Program as published by the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. The ESRD Task Force and the department chose to incorporate these criteria and standards in the rules for the convenience of the renal community. The criteria and standards text in the rule was modified from the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. document to conform to Texas Register form and style and to integrate with current rule requirements not included in the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. document and with the organization of the section. Subsections (e) and (f) were deleted and the language from these subsections was moved to new §117.46.

Section 117.43 covers minimum standards for the provision and coordination of treatment and services. The amendments add new language relating to patient rights; emergency preparedness; medication storage and administration; nursing services; medical services; temporary admissions; audits of billing; student health care professionals; and complaint resolution. The amendments to subsection (a) relating to patient rights imposes a 30 calendar day advance notice for patient discharge or transfer except in cases where the patient presents an immediate risk to others; provides for a patient's protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation; and excepts correctional institutions from including the 1-800 number in information provided to patients in these facilities. The amendment to subsection (c) relating to emergency preparedness adds a requirement that each facility staff member be able to demonstrate their role or responsibility to implement the facility's disaster preparedness plan. The amendment to subsection (c) also requires each facility to have an emergency lighting system which provides enough lighting to safely discontinue treatments and allow safe evacuation; to maintain and test battery pack systems quarterly; to post a phone number listing specific to the facility equipment and locale to assist staff in contacting mechanical and technical support in the event of an emergency; and to install, test, and maintain back-up generators (if used by a facility) in accordance with the National Fire Protection Association 110, Standard for Emergency Standby Power Systems. The amendment to subsection (d) relating to medication storage and administration allows a health care professional to receive a physician's verbal or telephone orders for the care or treatment provided by that health care professional (e.g., the dietitian may receive verbal orders for dietary services). The amendment to subsection (e) prohibits the nurse functioning in the charge role from being included in the staff to patient ratio during treatment of eight or more patients; reorganizes the subsection; and allows a registered nurse who is not the charge nurse to initiate the initial nursing assessment. The amendment to subsection (j) clarifies that physician visits must occur at the facility during a patient's treatment time; requires that home patients be seen by the physician at least every three months; and defines what the record for these visits must reflect; and specifies the information which must be included in orders for peritoneal dialysis treatment. New subsection (l) provides requirements admissions of transient patients and patients who are normally treated in another local facility, and describes the exchange of treatment information between the referring and receiving facilities. Current subsections (l) - (n) are renumbered as new subsections (m)-(o). New subsection (p) requires facilities to develop, implement, and enforce a compliance policy for monitoring state or federal funds. New subsection (q) provides conditions under which student health care professionals may provide care in a facility. New subsection (r) requires a facility to adopt, implement, and enforce procedures for resolving complaints relevant to quality of care or services.

Section 117.44 covers minimum standards for qualifications of staff. The amendment adds new language to subsection (c) relating to nursing staff and to subsection (e) relating to social services staff, and adds new subsection (f) relating to technical staff. The amendment to subsection (c) adds language to paragraph (3) to list qualifications which would allow an LVN to function in the charge role and delineates differences between an LVN and an RN functioning in this role. The amendment also deletes paragraph (3)(D) relating to the expiration of the paragraph. New subsection (f) describes the required qualifications for all technical staff ( technical supervisory staff, water treatment staff, equipment maintenance and repair staff, and reprocessing staff).

Section 117.45 covers minimum standards for clinical records. The amendment reorganizes subsection (e) into paragraphs (1) - (6); clarifies that a facility must obtain and include the information listed in paragraphs (1) - (6) prior to dialyzing a transient patient; adds a requirement for a list of medications and allergies; clarifies that laboratory reports must include screening for hepatitis status; and clarifies that the treatment records provided must be the most current.

New §117.46 concerning reports to the director contains the deleted language in §117.41(e) and (f); changes the time frame for reporting certain occurrences from three working days to ten working days; and requires the use of a department form to report such occurrences.

Subchapter E, §§117.61- 117.65, establishes the minimum standards for dialysis technicians. Section 117.65(b)(1) was amended to prohibit a dialysis technician from discontinuing dialysis via a central catheter, manipulating a central catheter, or performing dressing changes for a central catheter. The prohibition in §117.65(b)(4) was deleted to allow a dialysis technician to perform non-access site venipuncture. The prohibition in §117.65(b)(5) was amended to include "non-access site" before "arterial" to be clear that arterial puncture of a vascular access to perform dialysis is an accepted act for all qualified dialysis technicians.

Subchapter F, §§117.81 - 117.86 establishes enforcement provisions. Section 117.81 concerning corrective action plans was amended to add language to conform to new §§117.82 and 117.83.

New §117.82 - 117.86 is a reorganization of existing §§117.82 - 117.85. New §117.82 concerning voluntary appointment of a temporary manager contains the provisions in existing §117.82(a). New §117.83 concerning involuntary appointment of a temporary manager contains the provisions in existing §117.82(b). New §117.84 concerning disciplinary action contains the provisions in existing §117.83. New §117.85 concerning administrative penalties contains the provisions in existing §117.84. New §117.86 concerning recovery of costs contains the provisions in current §117.85.

The department received written comments and additional comments at the public hearing which the department held in Austin, Texas, on November 18, 1998. The comment period ended on November 30, 1998. The following is a summary of comments received on the proposed rules, the department's responses, and any resulting change(s).

1. COMMENT: Concerning the rules in general, one commenter suggested that the department require that pediatric dialysis patients receive care in a pediatric facility when that option is logistically feasible. The commenter expressed concern that a pediatric patient receiving treatment in an adult facility will be evaluated by adult outcome measures.

1. RESPONSE: While the department would agree that ideally pediatric patients would be treated in pediatric facilities, it is important that care be available for these patients as near to their homes as possible. Requiring all pediatric patients to be cared for in a pediatric facility as a minimum standard would be unduly restrictive. Further, the rules currently contain requirements specific to the care and treatment of the pediatric dialysis patient, without regard to the scope of the treatment facility, to assure minimal safe care for these patients is provided. (see §117.43(e)(6), §117.43(e)(7)(B), and §117.43(j)(2)(B)). In response to the second portion of the comment, the treating facility would have the responsibility to utilize pediatric outcome measures when appropriate and available. No change was made.

2. COMMENT: Concerning the rules in general, one commenter expressed an inability to locate a provision in the rules which clearly defines the scope of the department's licensing authority. The commenter described a scenario in which a hospital provides inpatient acute hemodialysis services to patients admitted to the hospital's skilled nursing facility (SNF) which is designated as an outpatient facility for Medicare certification and reimbursement. The commenter expressed concern that the rules do not clearly define the department's authority to regulate such a scenario.

2. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern. The state law which provides the department with the authority to adopt licensing rules governing end stage renal disease facilities is located in the Health and Safety Code (HSC), Chapter 251. Language was added to clarify that the licensing rules cover facilities providing routine, repetitive, outpatient dialysis at §117.1(a). The HSC, §251.012 contains specific exemptions from licensure and includes a hospital licensed under HSC, Chapter 241 that provides dialysis only to individuals receiving inpatient services from the hospital. A hospital-based SNF unit is considered an inpatient unit of the hospital regardless of its Medicare reimbursement classification. If a hospital's dialysis services are limited to inpatients of the hospital and its SNF patients, no ESRD facility license is required. No change to the rules was made as a result of the comment.

3. COMMENT: In reference to proposed §117.2(16), renumbered as §117.2(15), concerning dialysis technicians, a commenter stated that the definition for "technician" doesn't address LVNs and assumes LVNs are equivalent to dialysis technicians, without recognizing their additional education and skills.

3. RESPONSE: The department regrets the statutory language did not differentiate unlicensed patient care technicians from LVNs, and recognizes the skills and abilities of the LVNs working in ESRD facilities. These rules include sections which acknowledge these skills and abilities by delineating tasks and functions for the LVN that are beyond the practice of the unlicensed dialysis technician. No change was made.

4. COMMENT: In reference to proposed §117.2(44), renumbered as §117.2(43), concerning definitions, one commenter stated the definition of "progress note" should be sufficiently broad to allow and encourage the use of computer systems.

4. RESPONSE: The department believes that the definition is sufficiently broad to allow the use of electronic formats to maintain progress notes. The definition does not preclude the use of such formats. Electronic signature of clinical records, including progress notes are not prohibited so long as the entries meet the requirement in §117.45(e)(5). No change was made.

5. COMMENT: In reference to proposed §117.2(54), renumbered as §117.2(53), concerning definitions, the Medical Review Board of the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc., suggested that the definition of "working day" be referenced or included wherever the words, "days" or "working days" are included in the document.

5. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern for clarity. Where practical, the department has defined each reference to "day" as being either "calendar" or "working" throughout the document.

6. COMMENT: In reference to §117.11(c)(3)(A), concerning general requirements for a license, a commenter asked whether the relocation of a facility housed in a modular building (e.g. the building itself would be moved to a different address) would be treated differently than a relocation of a facility to a different building.

6. RESPONSE: The department responds that the license is not transferrable to a different address; the license is issued to a facility at the physical location listed on the license application. In the event the situation described by the commenter occurs, the department would consider waiving the design and space survey of the relocated modular building. No change was made.

7. COMMENT: In reference to §117.13, concerning application and issuance of annual renewal license, one commenter stated "recognizing that both parties have an obligation, it seems to be a burden to make the facility responsible for problems of the department." The commenter did not reference specific provisions of §117.13.

7. RESPONSE: Since the commenter did not reference specific provisions of §117.13, the department can not be sure what problems the commenter is referring to, and therefore cannot respond appropriately. No change was made.

8. COMMENT: In reference to §117.13(f)(2), concerning application and issuance of annual renewal license, one commenter stated that a facility has no mechanism to monitor who has student loans and stated that denying license renewal because of a defaulted student loan is excessive and puts a large number of patients at risk to find alternative care. The commenter added that the requirement jeopardizes the employment of many individuals.

8. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern, but disagrees that the rule is excessive. The Texas Education Code, §57.491 prohibits the department from renewing a license to a person who is in default on a student loan. The law does not affect any individual employed by a facility unless the individual is the person to whom the ESRD license is issued. Including the student loan provision in the licensing rules serves as a notice regarding the student loan requirement. Deletion of the provision from the rules does not negate the responsibility of the department or the licensee's obligation to comply with the law. Other state licensing authorities (e.g. Texas State Board of Medical Examiners, Texas State Board of Nurse Examiners, Texas State Board of Licensed Vocational Nurse Examiners) are also required to comply with the Texas Education Code's requirements. No change was made.

9. COMMENT: In reference to §117.14(b)(2), concerning change in services, one commenter stated that the provision is too broad and should be restricted to patient care areas and instances where the renovation or modification is not urgent due to safety considerations.

9. RESPONSE: The department disagrees that the provision is overly broad. The rule is not a new requirement and is intended to identify construction projects that must comply with the design and space requirements in §117.31. Notification concerning the project will expedite the department's scheduling of a design and space inspection (if deemed necessary by the department). For clarification purposes, the rule was amended to state the notification time frame is measured in calendar days. No changes were made as a result of the comment.

10. COMMENT: In reference to §117.17(b), optional plan review and inspection, one commenter stated that when a facility is ready to open, the state inspection should be done quickly, that the state can be kept appraised of the construction progress and be prepared to act, and that delay in opening the facility could cause continued hardship to patients and a financial hardship to the facility due to delay in being able to generate income.

10. RESPONSE: The department agrees that an inspection for the purposes of verifying compliance with the design and space requirements in §117.31 should be expeditious. The rule is a current requirement and is presently implemented as suggested by the commenter. No change was made.

11. COMMENT: In reference to §117.32(a), concerning equipment, one commenter stated that it is not always reasonable to operate equipment according to manufacturer's specifications. The commenter stated that when a manufacturer's manual identifies such specifications as "recommendations," it is interpreted that the user may make modifications. The commenter added that discussion with the manufacturer of some equipment indicated that some recommendations are for the manufacturer's protection and not necessarily for patient safety. The commenter suggested flexibility be allowed.

11. RESPONSE: The department agrees that flexibility should be allowed whenever possible. This language was developed by the technical sub-committee of ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. and was endorsed by the ESRD Task Force. The department believes operating equipment in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications provides a minimum level of safety for patients. No change was made.

12. COMMENT: In reference to §117.32(c), concerning equipment, two commenters stated the requirement was confusing. One commenter described a scenario in which there are 44 machines which requires five backup machines. Of these five backup machines, only one would need to be operational. The commenter asked "If one machine fails and the backup is put in use, are we then out of compliance." The commenter stated that a patient's treatment could be delayed several hours safely. The commenter did not state whether all 44 machines are being used during all treatment times. Another commenter requested clarification with regard to the requirement of one operational back-up machine for every eight (8) patients that are dialyzing. The commenter stated that there are some units that have 17 or 18 chairs, and asked if this means that the unit would have to round up on the number of back-up machines.

12. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenters concerns. The department explains that the requirement at §117.32(c) is intended to provide one backup machine for every 10 machines (or portion thereof) in use. Surveyors have found facilities to have the required number of backup machines, but none were ready for use. The intention of this requirement is to assure that at least one functional backup machine is available during patient treatment times. A facility with 44 machines would require five backup machines to be available; and a facility that had 17 machines will be required to have two backup machines available. Machines on the treatment floor not currently in use are considered back-up machines as well as machines stored elsewhere in the facility. Not having an available operational machine should rarely occur; rare occurrences do not routinely constitute a deficient practice unless there are negative patient outcomes. No change was made.

13. COMMENT: Regarding §117.32(c), concerning backup machines, a commenter asked if facilities owned by the same corporate group and located near each other could share backup machines, transporting them between two or more facilities.

13. RESPONSE: The department has set minimum requirements for back up machines to prevent patients missing or having shortened treatments due to equipment failure. The department and the task force agreed that the minimum of one backup machine in each facility for every 10 in use was necessary to assure safety. The minimum number of backup machines must be maintained in each facility. Corporations may provide access to more back up equipment through sharing if desired.

14. COMMENT: In reference to §117.34(d)(2)(B)(i) and (C)(iv), concerning hepatitis B prevention, a commenter asked the definition of "extended hospitalization."

14. RESPONSE: The department intends the "30 days or longer" to apply to both "extended hospitalization" and "absence." No change was made.

15. COMMENT: In reference to §117.34(d)(2)(C)(iv), concerning hepatitis B prevention, one commenter stated that all the commenter's patients are treated as if they are potentially HBsAg positive and that the staff wears protective equipment and uses standard precautions.

15. RESPONSE: The department recognizes the efforts of the commenter in practicing standard precautions. Treatment of HBsAg positive patients requires specific hemodialysis precautions to include barrier garments and discard of dialyzers after single use. This is in addition to standard precautions. No change was made.

16. COMMENT: In reference to §117.41(c)(5), concerning responsibilities of the governing body, one commenter asked how a governing body is defined by these rules, stating that his facility was part of a multi-specialty clinic which has a central governing body, with no specific knowledge related to ESRD. The commenter suggested changing the frequency for the governing body's review and monitoring of quality management activities from "quarterly" to "annually." The commenter stated that the "quarterly details" are better left to individuals knowledgeable in the area of nephrology and dialysis.

16. RESPONSE: The department believes setting a definition of governing body may be restrictive. The facility may establish a local governing body to be responsible for the quality management activities and the day-to-day functioning of the facility. This is frequently the case in large, multi-state corporations which have a national governing body as well as local governing body for each facility; the local governing body would be responsible to report and respond to the central governing body. This arrangement is also seen in some hospital based units, where a unit- based committee is responsible for the required actions, and reports to the hospital's governing body. No change was made.

17. COMMENT: In reference to §117.41(g)(4)(F), concerning quality control and quality improvement mechanisms, a commenter from a hospital-based dialysis facility stated that monitoring mortality by the quality management team and review of individual deaths would better be done by the medical staff and suggested that this activity would easily duplicate the activities of the hospital medical committees or the hospice committees.

17. RESPONSE: The department agrees that a facility's medical staff should be involved in monitoring mortality. The rule does not preclude the monitoring of mortality as suggested by the commenter. However, it is important that such data be shared with core staff members as active participants in quality management activities. The requirements relating to quality management in §117.41 are consistent with the criteria and standards set out by the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. No change was made.

18. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(d)(3), relating to receipt of telephone and verbal order, one commenter agreed with the change to allow dietitians to take verbal orders. A second commenter stated that licensed personnel (e.g., nurses and physicians) should be able to take dietary orders and that this provides more timely interventions as the dietitian may not be present in the facility at all times.

18. RESPONSE: The department appreciates the support and agrees that clarification is needed. The rule is not intended to preclude acceptance of dietary orders by nurses or physician assistants. The department has rewritten the language to make this clear which was included in the proposed rule. No change was made.

19. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), one commenter questioned the 4:1 ratio described in the proposal. The commenter stated that facilities with less than eight patients are unlikely to be economically attractive; the rule will "essentially mandate a ratio of two and two-thirds patients per nurse;" and this high level of staffing decreases the attractiveness of providing satellite services.

19. RESPONSE: The department does not agree with the commenter. Patients treated in "satellite" facilities should be provided the same level of care as patients treated in "non-satellite" facilities. The task force unanimously supported the need to make a licensed nurse available at all times during treatment of eight or more patients to coordinate the care of all the patients being treated. When that nurse has her own patient assignment, she is not available to evaluate the patients of the unlicensed staff members or to take indicated action. Staffing for eight patients could be one licensed nurse and two unlicensed dialysis technicians, maintaining the current rations of one licensed nurse to 12 patients (or portion thereof), and one direct care staff to each four patients. No change was made.

20. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), twelve commenters expressed agreement with the exclusion of the charge nurse from the ratio of four patients per licensed nurse or patient care technician per patient shift during the treatment of eight or more patients. The commenters stated that the amendment promotes a safer environment for dialysis patients.

20. RESPONSE: The department appreciates the support and agrees that when eight or more patients are being treated, requiring the "charge nurse" to provide direct patient care places these patients at risk to receive treatment below the minimum standard for safe dialysis.

21. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), nursing services, one commenter from a pediatric facility suggested that the rule be changed to require facilities to base staffing needs on a statistically validated patient dependency classification system. The commenter expressed concern with regard to the adequacy of care the current 4:1 ratio would provide a pediatric patient. The commenter added that staffing requirements for pediatric care comprise a complex matrix that is most easily implemented with a staffing and scheduling system to staff by skill level according to the dependency level of the patient.

21. RESPONSE: The department agrees that a universally accepted dependency or acuity- based system for determining staffing levels in the dialysis setting would be the optimum approach to meet the intent of the requirement. However, based upon current information obtained from the dialysis community at large, no such universally-accepted system has been established for the out-patient dialysis setting. The rules do not preclude the use of such a system if its use meets the minimum rule requirement of a 4:1 ratio for patients weighing more than 20 kilograms. This requirement does not prohibit a facility from using a lower ratio for pediatric patients whose levels of acuity demand more individual care, and these rules specify higher ratios for certain pediatric patients at §117.43(e)(7). No change was made.

22. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), nursing services, two commenters recommended, in the interest of improved patient care and safety, a reduction of the ratio to three patients per licensed nurse or patient care technician. Another commenter stated that the 4:1 ratio described in the rule encourages administrative staff to pressure nursing supervisors to use 4:1 staffing regardless of patient acuity levels. The commenter suggested that staffing levels should be based on either a 3:1 patient to patient care staff ratio or patient acuity.

22. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern for patient health and safety and recognizes the minimum ratio of four patients per licensed nurse or patient care technician required by these rules may not be adequate in some situations. Facilities are expected to evaluate the needs of the individual patients being treated and adjust staffing to meet these needs. This expectation is reflected at §117.43(e)(7), which requires sufficient staff be on-site to meet the needs of the patients. The Task Force discussed reducing the 4:1 ratio at length and concluded a 3:1 ratio would be overly restrictive and cost prohibitive. The Task Force is committed to evaluating acuity based staffing methods with the possibility of amending this requirement to address staffing based on patient acuity at a later date. The rule does not preclude the use of a 3:1 ratio or patient acuity staffing formulas which meet or exceed the 4:1 rule. No change was made.

23. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), nursing services, one commenter expressed disagreement with taking the charge nurse out of the 4:1 ratio during treatment of eight or more patients. While recognizing that taking the charge nurse out of this ratio might provide additional staff and benefit patients, the commenter wants the freedom to design work teams to improve continuity of care for patients by pairing each RN with a couple of patient care technicians. Each work team would be responsible for a group of patients for up to six months. The commenter implied that no single RN would be designated "charge", and all RN's would participate in staffing at some level while directing the care of their team's patients. Taking the charge nurse out of the ratio when eight or more patients are receiving treatment might limit the financial resources available to implement this system, and would lock nurses into a "dated position." The commenter was concerned that the rule terminology would "stifle innovation and creativity" related to changes which could improve staffing and better meet patient needs.

23. RESPONSE: The department appreciates the commenter's desire to implement innovative and creative ideas to improve staffing, and would encourage the commenter to use this creativity to identify ways to meet this minimum standard and design work teams to provide the desired outcome. The intent of excluding the nurse functioning in the charge role from the 4:1 ratio when eight or more patients are being treated is to provide a greater level of safety by assuring the availability of a licensed nurse to oversee the care of all patients, rather than having this individual absorbed in direct care responsibilities. No change was made.

24. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(e)(7)(A), nursing services, two commenters supported this rule, but stated there are situations where a nurse does not report to work requiring the charge nurse to care for up to four patients in order to prevent delay or cancellation of patient treatments. The commenter suggested adding provisions for flexibility so that patients can receive timely care. A second commenter requested an exception for emergency situations.

24. RESPONSE: The department agrees that in the scenario described by the first commenter it is important to avoid delay or cancellation of treatment to patients. There should be some backup system to allow for coverage in the event of personnel absenteeism or emergencies, so that such events described by the commenters would be rare. Rare events do not routinely constitute a deficient practice unless there are negative patient outcomes. No change was made.

25. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(j)(2)(C), medical services for home patients, the Medical Review Board of the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. suggested deleting the words, "at the facility," in that the delivery of the service rather than the place of delivery is the key element in providing medical services to these patients. Another commenter stated that requiring home patients to be seen at the facility is unduly restrictive, adding that requiring the physician go from his/her office to a facility to see a patient can waste time; that the facility location provides no advantages; and that occasionally, patients make an appointment in the physician's office due to a preference for more privacy.

25. RESPONSE: The department agrees that where medical services are delivered to home patients is not as important as the actual delivery of these services. The department reminds the commenters that home patients will also need to receive the required support services, (nursing, social, and dietary services) and that Medicare certification requirements limit reimbursement for home services to facilities certified to provide these services. The language was amended to delete the specification of location for the physician to see home patients.

26. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(j)(2)(C), medical services, one commenter requested that the department consider allowing the use of nurse practitioners and physician extenders to substitute for the physician in writing progress notes and in seeing patients in the dialysis facility every two weeks.

26. RESPONSE: The department agrees that nurse practitioners and physician extenders may be very useful in providing care to dialysis patients. The suggestion that these individuals substitute for the physician in seeing patients every two weeks was considered and rejected by the Task Force and by the Medical Review Board of the ESRD Network of Texas. Other than the minimum requirement for the physician to record a progress note at least every six months, the nurse practitioner or physician extender could certainly document the medical progress of the patient. No change was made.

27. COMMENT: In reference to 117.43(j)(2)(C), medical services, one commenter stated that physicians being able to see patients in satellite facilities every two weeks is problematical: patients on the early shift may have already completed their treatment and left the facility before the physician arrives. The commenter suggested the rules allow such patients to be seen in the physician's office, or for the physician to simply review the patient record in the facility every two weeks and see the patient only if there are issues.

27. RESPONSE: The department recognizes providing medical care to facilities distant from the physician's office may be challenging. Each facility is seen as a distinct entity, and every patient must be provided the minimum level of care required in these rules. The physician member and alternate for the task force supported the requirement that each patient be seen by a physician every two weeks as the minimum for safe medical care. No change was made to the rule.

28. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(j)(2)(E)(i), orders for hemodialysis treatment, one commenter stated the requirement should be for length of treatment rather than for treatment time and the dialysate bath should also be specified in the requirement.

28. RESPONSE: The department agrees and has changed the language as suggested.

29. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(l)(1), temporary admissions, one commenter stated the rule was confusing. The commenter asked how a physician becomes a member of the staff of the referring and the receiving facilities, stating that dozens of patients from distant parts of the country are cared for each year and that some of these patients just show up at the facility for treatment. The commenter also asked if care to these patients is to be denied.

29. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern and denial of care is not suggested by the rule. The rule applies to situations in which a patient is dialyzed in another local facility. A "local facility" is one which is in the same geographical area as the patient's "home" facility. The intent of the rule is to facilitate treatment of patients in an associated facility which is open longer hours than the patient's "home" facility. Language was added at §117.43(l)(2) to describe requirements for a facility to treat transient patients (those from distant facilities), the situation described by the commenter.

30. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(l)(4), renumbered as §117.43(l)(1)(D), temporary admissions, one commenter stated that it takes one to two days for a laboratory to report hepatitis B status, so the commenter's facility treats these patients using appropriate precautions. The commenter stated that not treating these patients could be hazardous to their health and since the commenter's facility is hospital-based, not providing treatment could be construed as denial of emergency care.

30. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern. The rule is not intended to deny treatment to patients, and is not meant to preclude treatment if a patient's hepatitis B status cannot be established. Language was added at §117.43(l)(1)(E) to clarify that, if the patient's hepatitis status is unknown, the patient must be undergo treatment as if the HBsAg test results were potentially positive, except that such a patient shall not be treated in the HBsAg isolation room, area, or machine.

31. COMMENT: Regarding §117.43(p), relating to audits of billing, a commenter reported billing is not done in their facility, as all billing is done by a central office, and asked if the facility could be exempt from this requirement.

31. RESPONSE: The department recognizes that many corporate owned facilities will have billing performed at a central location, however, a central system does not relieve the individual facility from the responsibility of assuring that this process is done accurately and not fraudulently. Because the health care community is familiar with the requirements of a compliance policy, the department has added the word "compliance" to describe the policy required by this rule.

32. COMMENT: In reference to proposed §117.43(q)(2), student health care professionals, one commenter stated that his hospital-based facility frequently provides orientation for nursing students (RNs and LVNs) which includes teaching about dialysis, dialysis machines, and health and safety issues. The commenter stated that this information cannot be provided by the students' instructors since they are not familiar with dialysis. The commenter added that the proposed rule is overly restrictive and could lead to less understanding of dialysis by students rather than more.

32. RESPONSE: The department agrees this rule could be interpreted too stringently, and has deleted the requirement and renumbered the remaining paragraphs.

33. COMMENT: In reference to §117.43(r), complaint resolution, a commenter inquired what constitutes a complaint, stating that some patients complain that they need to run a longer time in order to achieve their target clearance, and in some cases, a patient's comments may be dismissed as "insignificant," or "general expressions of unhappiness which should fall below the threshold of formal response."

33. RESPONSE: The department agrees that it may be difficult to identify true complaints. The rule is specific to a complaint resolution system that addresses quality of care or services or staff and intends to relate to complaints describing conditions (clinical or sociological) which may be detrimental to achieving quality. Facilities may need to develop guidelines to direct staff in evaluating the significance of patient comments. A single comment regarding delays in treatment, for example, may not need to be documented, while repeated comments alleging unfair treatment would need to be recorded and addressed. The department has clarified the language in an attempt to assist facilities in this task.

34. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(c)(3)(A), nursing staff qualifications, one commenter stated that the rule is in conflict with the requirement in the rules and regulations governing professional nurse education, licensure, and practice, Title 22, Texas Administrative Code (TAC), §217.12(d) relating to designations for registered nurse/titles deemed misleading. The commenter added that the rules and regulations governing vocational nursing practice do not contain provisions allowing a licensed vocational nurse (LVN) to practice as a charge nurse. The commenter concluded that if an RN assigned charge nurse duties to an LVN, the RN would be in violation of Title 22, Texas Administrative Code (TAC), §217.13(10) relating to unprofessional conduct.

34. RESPONSE: The department agrees that the rule conflicts with 22 TAC §217.12(d) and has changed the language to conform to the regulations adopted by the State Board of Nurse Examiners. The department consulted with the Board of Nurse Examiners and has changed the language used to describe the licensed nurse who is the primary person responsible for coordinating the care for a shift of patients from "charge nurse" to "the licensed nurse functioning in the charge role" throughout the rules. The department does not agree that the RN would be in violation of 22 TAC §217.13(10) by assigning a qualified LVN to function in the charge role as specified in these rules, but has added language at §117.44(c)(3) to clearly delineate requirements which would allow an LVN to function in the charge role, and to differentiate the responsibilities for an RN versus an LVN functioning in this role.

35. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(c), qualifications of nursing staff, one commenter stated that licensed vocational nurses (LVNs) should not be allowed to continue to perform charge nurse responsibilities.

35. RESPONSE: The department does not agree that qualified LVNs should not be allowed to continue to perform charge responsibilities. After consulting with the Board of Nurse Examiners, language was added at §117.44(c)(3) to detail the conditions under which an LVN may function in the charge role.

36. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(c), qualifications of nursing staff, a commenter stated that LVNs do not possess the depth of knowledge necessary for the decision making required of a charge nurse and expressed no knowledge of a certification examination which ensures this knowledge has been gained. Another commenter stated that the certification exams available to LVNs do not qualify an LVN to perform charge duties.

36. RESPONSE: The department recognizes the differences in the scope of practice of an RN versus an LVN and has addressed these differences at §177.44(c). The department has determined that information provided the task force regarding a specific certification exam to confirm the proficiency of an LVN in the charge role was incorrect and has deleted that proposed language. The department consulted with the Board of Nephrology Nurses and Technician Exam and determined LVN's are being allowed to take the Certified Hemodialysis Nurse exam effective January 1, 1999. On the request and with the input of the ESRD task force, language was added to allow licensed vocational nurses with two years hemodialysis experience to obtain certification as a hemodialysis nurse by a nationally recognized board, complete a facility based competency program and demonstrate competency in the charge role as a substitute for the two years experience as a charge nurse prior to September 1, 1996.

37. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(e)(1), qualifications for social work staff, the Medical Review Board of the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc. and another commenter suggested deleting the words, "and have one year experience in social services." The commenters expressed concern that such a requirement would overly restrict the availability of master's prepared social workers and added that since the requirement does not provide for clinical or nephrology expertise, the potential risk of losing social workers from the available pool outweighs any perceived benefit.

37. RESPONSE: The department agrees that the requirement is overly restrictive and has deleted the words as suggested.

38. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(e)(1), social services staff, one commenter expressed concern about the requirement that social workers be degreed at the master's level and suggested that services of a bachelor level social worker under the supervision of a master's degree social worker could perform many tasks which do not require a master's degree (e.g., arranging transient treatments, competing drug and travel requests).

38. RESPONSE: The department agrees that many social services do not require the expertise of a master's prepared social worker. The rule provision, which is currently in effect, does not preclude a bachelor's level social worker from providing discrete social services, such as those listed by the commenter, under the supervision of a master's prepared social worker. No change was made.

39. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f), technical staff, one commenter applauded the addition of minimum qualification standards for all technical staff, including water treatment, equipment, maintenance, and reprocessing staff.

39. RESPONSE: The department appreciates the support and agrees that establishing minimum qualifications for technical staff is important to patient safety. No change was made.

40. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f), technical staff training, a commenter inquired whether there will be a minimum number of hours required for technical training.

40. RESPONSE: The department has not specified a minimum number of hours for the training outlined for technical staff. Each facility would be expected to tailor this training to the individual's learning needs to assure minimum competency at the completion of the training program. No change was made.

41. COMMENT: Concerning §117.44(f)(1), relating to education requirements for technical staff, one commenter asked if these requirements applied to staff who perform reprocessing of hemodialyzers.

41. RESPONSE: The department has specified the education requirements apply to all technical staff to include staff who perform reprocessing of hemodialyzers. The language was amended to clarify this requirement.

42. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(1)(A)(i), relating to education requirements for technical staff, a commenter asked if there would be a "grandfather" clause to allow individuals with years of experience to continue working in the technical area of dialysis even though they do not have a high school diploma.

42. RESPONSE: The department appreciates the comment's question, agrees that a "grandfather clause" should be included, and has added language which waives the requirement for a high school diploma or equivalent for technical staff employed by the facility for two or more years prior to the effective date of these rules.

43. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(1)(A)(ii)(II), relating to training or experience for technical staff, one commenter stated that the curriculum components listed in §117.62 (relating to training curricula and instructors for dialysis technicians) contain an "unnecessary level of medical detail for persons who do not have direct patient care responsibility." Another commenter asked whether candidates for technical positions must have two years experience.

43. RESPONSE: The department agrees that the language at §117.44(f)(1)(A)(ii)(I)-(IV) was confusing. Completion of the dialysis technician training program is one option to fulfill the training or education requirements for technical staff, two years experience is another option. The department has modified the language to clarify this as a list of options for training and experience.

44. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(1)(C), technical staff, one commenter stated that a technician's skill is best known by observing work performance. The commenter added that trying to develop a test and determine its reliability and validity is beyond the capability of most facilities.

44. RESPONSE: The department understands resources are available in the renal community to include prepared tests in the areas of water, reuse, and mechanical support for dialysis. Just as facilities utilized commercial curricula (available without charge) for their dialysis technician training programs, they may use such available curricula, which include prepared tests, for this requirement. No change was made.

45. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(2), training required for the technical staff, one commenter indicated that the requirements for "chief technician" (technical supervisor) may conflict with the commenter's hospital-based organizational hierarchy. The commenter stated that the chief technician for the ESRD facility is responsible for the facility's mechanical and water treatment systems, while significant preventive maintenance and repair of dialysis machines are performed by the hospital's biomedical engineering department staff, who report to their own supervisor.

45. RESPONSE: The department understands the commenter's concern but believes there is sufficient flexibility in the language of this requirement to allow it to "fit" his hospital-based program. Facilities may arrange for some services, such as preventative maintenance, to be provided by an outside source or by a department in a hospital. The work done by that outside entity would be reported to the facility; the chief technician would be responsible for reviewing those reports and bringing any problem identified to the attention of the facility's quality assurance committee. No change was made.

46. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(3)(B)(iii), technical staff, confirmation of the ability to distinguish all primary colors, a commenter asked why the person responsible for water testing needs to distinguish all primary colors.

46. RESPONSE: The department is aware that several of the tests required to assure safety in the treatment water and in reuse procedures are based on color changes when reagents are added. A person who could not distinguish all primary colors would not be capable of accurately performing and reading these tests. No change was made.

47. COMMENT: In reference to §117.44(f)(4)(B)(iii), equipment maintenance and repair staff, one commenter from a hospital-based facility stated that the facility's technical supervisor is not responsible for building maintenance and suggested provisions for these situations.

47. RESPONSE: The department recognizes facilities may meet these requirements in various ways. Facility staff responsibilities for building maintenance may be as minimal as knowing whom (from the hospital building maintenance personnel) to call for building maintenance issues, or as complex as having the capability to effect maintenance and repair of the physical plant. The department believes that the rule is sufficiently flexible and made no change.

48. COMMENT: In reference to §117.45(e), clinical records for transient patients, one commenter expressed agreement that most transient visits are scheduled and the facility has received all the information specified in the rule. The commenter stated that the rule should accommodate situations when patients present to the facility requiring emergency services. The commenter added that the nephrologist is capable of evaluating a patient and developing a plan of treatment, including dialysis orders.

48. RESPONSE: The department agrees that the nephrologist is capable of evaluating a transient patient and developing a plan of treatment, including dialysis orders, when the patient presents unannounced. Language was added at §117.43(l)(2) to clarify and to allow for treatment of transient patients who present unannounced. No change was made to §117.45(e).

49. COMMENT: In reference to §117.46, report to the director, one commenter stated that clotted vascular access is a frequent occurrence and that the facility handles this by hospitalizing the patient (sometimes on an outpatient basis). The commenter asked if the department really wanted a formal report on every patient who was hospitalized for a clotted vascular access.

49. RESPONSE: The rule requiring reports to the director is currently in effect at §117.41(e) and (f), except that the proposed language in §117.46 relaxes the reporting time from three working days to ten working days. In response to the commenter's question, if the clotting occurred as a result of treatment and required hospital care, it should be reported. If the access was clotted when the patient was presented to the dialysis facility for treatment, this occurrence would not need to be reported. No change was made.

50. COMMENT: In reference to §117.65(b)(1), prohibited acts for dialysis technicians who are not licensed vocational nurses, a commenter asked why dressing changes for central catheters are now prohibited.

50. RESPONSE: The department and the task force are aware of the high infection rate for central catheters and determined restricting the performance of dressing changes to licensed nurses would provide a definite time to assess the catheter insertion site, increasing the potential an infection would be recognized early to allow treatment. No change was made.

51. COMMENT: In reference to §117.65(b)(1), prohibited acts, a commenter stated that the language regarding the prohibited acts for unlicensed dialysis technicians was not clear as to whether the technician could return the patient's blood, and expressed concern that unlicensed technicians would not be allowed to do this task for patients who were unstable.

51. RESPONSE: The department does not agree that the language is unclear. No reference is made to the interdialysis care; the acts prohibited are the connection, manipulation, and disconnection of the catheter, not the administration of fluid (e.g. to return the patient's blood) through the catheter. No change was made.

The commenters included representatives from the following: W.W. Wise Memorial Dialysis Center, Harlingen; Collom and Carney Clinic Association, Texarkana; the Medical Review Board of the ESRD Network of Texas, Inc., Dallas; Scott and White Hospital, Temple; Total Renal Care, San Antonio; Texas Children's Hospital Renal Dialysis Center, Houston; University of Texas Medical Branch at Galveston; Austin Diagnostic Clinic, Austin; and several registered nurses working in dialysis. The commenters were generally in favor of the rules as proposed, but expressed concerns, asked questions, and made recommendations for change.

In addition to the changes the department made as a result of comments received, the department is making the following changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the sections.

1. CHANGE: Concerning §117.12(a), the department corrected the cross reference to requirements relating to the application and issuance of an annual renewal license. The cross reference was erroneously listed as §117.13; it was changed to refer to subsection (h).

2. CHANGE: Concerning §117.12(c)(1), the department deleted the extraneous words, "to the," between the phrases "...of this subsection..." and "...within six months from the mailing date...."

3. CHANGE: Concerning §117.13(b)(2) and §117.13(g), sentence structure was modified for clarification purposes.

4. CHANGE: Concerning §117.13(f), the department deleted the words "propose to" for clarity.

5. CHANGE: Concerning §117.13(f)(3), the department added language to clarify that the department may deny the issuance of an annual renewal license if information in §117.12(c)(3)(S) and (T) is discovered by the department.

6. CHANGE: Concerning §117.16(c)(4)(C)(vi)(IV), the reference to "clause (ii) or (iii) of this subparagraph" was corrected to read "subclause (II) or (III) of this clause."

7. CHANGE: Concerning §117.43(a)(15), patient's rights in respect to a complaint mechanism, the department made a change as a result of conversations with the management of the dialysis facilities located in correctional institutions and research by the legal staff of the department. This requirement was amended to exempt correctional institutions from including the 1-800 number in information provided to patients in these facilities as inmates have limited phone access and other grievance mechanisms exist within the Texas Department of Criminal Justice.

8. CHANGE: Concerning §117.43(e)(10), the term "nursing assessment" was changed to "patient evaluation" for clarification.

9. CHANGE: Concerning §117.65(b)(4), this requirement was amended to include "non-access site" before "arterial" to be clear that arterial puncture of a vascular access to perform dialysis is an accepted act for all qualified dialysis technicians.

Subchapter A. General Provisions

25 TAC §§117.1-117.3

The amendments are adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.2.Definitions.

The following words and terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(1)

Advanced practice nurse - A registered nurse approved by the Board of Nurse Examiners for the State of Texas to practice as an advanced practice nurse on the basis of completion of an advanced educational program. The term includes a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, nurse anesthetist, and clinical nurse specialist.

(2)

Administrator - A person who is delegated the responsibility for the implementation and proper application of policies, programs, and services established for the end stage renal disease facility.

(3)

Affiliate - An applicant or owner which is:

(A)

a corporation - includes each officer, consultant, stockholder with a direct ownership of at least 5.0%, subsidiary, and parent company;

(B)

a limited liability company - includes each officer, member, and parent company;

(C)

an individual - includes:

(i)

the individual's spouse;

(ii)

each partnership and each partner thereof of which the individual or any affiliate of the individual is a partner; and

(iii)

each corporation in which the individual is an officer, consultant, or stockholder with a direct ownership of at least 5.0%;

(D)

a partnership - includes each partner and any parent company; and

(E)

a group of co-owners under any other business arrangement - includes each officer, consultant, or the equivalent under the specific business arrangement and each parent company.

(4)

Applicant - The owner of an end stage renal disease facility which is applying for a license under the statute. This is the person in whose name the license is issued.

(5)

Board - The Texas Board of Health.

(6)

Change of ownership - A sole proprietor who transfers all or part of the facility's ownership to another person or persons; the removal, addition, or substitution of a person or persons as a partner in a facility owned by a partnership; or a corporate sale, transfer, reorganization, or merger of the corporation which owns the facility if sale, transfer, reorganization, or merger causes a change in the facility's ownership to another person or persons.

(7)

Chief technician - The facility-based supervisor of the facility's mechanical, reuse and water treatment systems.

(8)

Commissioner - The commissioner of health.

(9)

Competency - The demonstrated ability to carry out specified tasks or activities with reasonable skill and safety that adheres to the prevailing standard of practice.

(10)

Core staff members - The facility's medical director, supervising nurse, dietitian, social worker, administrator, and chief technician.

(11)

Corrective action plan - A written strategy for correcting a licensing violation. The corrective action plan is developed by the facility and addresses the system(s) operation(s) of the facility as the system(s) operation(s) applies to the deficiency.

(12)

Delegation - The transfer to a qualified and properly trained individual of the authority to perform a selected task or activity in a selected situation.

(13)

Department - The Texas Department of Health.

(14)

Dialysis - A process by which dissolved substances are removed from a patient's body by diffusion, osmosis and convection (ultrafiltration) from one fluid compartment to another across a semipermeable membrane.

(15)

Dialysis technician - An individual who is not a registered nurse or physician and who provides dialysis care under the direct supervision of a registered nurse or physician. If unlicensed, this individual may also be known as a patient care technician.

(16)

Dietitian - A person who is currently licensed under the laws of this state to use the title of licensed dietitian, is eligible to be a registered dietitian, and has one year of experience in clinical dietetics after becoming eligible to be a registered dietitian.

(17)

Director - The director of the Health Facility Licensing Division of the department or his or her designee.

(18)

End stage renal disease - That stage of renal impairment that appears irreversible and permanent and that requires a regular course of dialysis or kidney transplantation to maintain life.

(19)

End stage renal disease facility - A facility that provides dialysis treatment or dialysis training to individuals with end stage renal disease.

(20)

Full-time - The time period established by a facility as a full working week, as defined and specified in the facility's policies and procedures.

(21)

Full-time equivalent - Work time equivalent to 2,080 hours per 12 consecutive months.

(22)

Health care facility - Any type of facility or home and community support services agency licensed to provide health care in any state or is certified for Medicare (Title XVIII) or Medicaid (Title XIX) participation in any state.

(23)

Hospital - A facility that is licensed under the Texas Hospital Licensing Law, Health and Safety Code, Chapter 241, or if exempt from licensure, certified by the United States Department of Health and Human Services as in compliance with conditions of participation for hospitals in Title XVIII, Social Security Act (42 United States Code, §1395 et. seq.).

(24)

Interdisciplinary team - A group composed of the patient and the primary physician, the registered nurse, the dietitian and the social worker who are responsible for planning care for the patient.

(25)

Intermediate level disinfection - A surface treatment using chemical germicides or disinfectants which are capable of inactivating various classes of microorganisms including, but not limited to, viruses (primarily medium to large viruses and lipid-containing viruses), fungi, and actively growing bacteria (including tubercle bacteria) when such chemical germicides or disinfectants are used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions or per established guidelines. Intermediate level disinfection is generally not effective in inactivating or eliminating bacterial endospores. Examples of intermediate level disinfectants include bleach, 70-90% ethanol or isopropanol, and certain phenolic or iodophor preparations.

(26)

Inspection - An investigation or survey conducted by a representative of the department to determine if an applicant or licensee is in compliance with this chapter.

(27)

Licensed nurse - A registered nurse or licensed vocational nurse.

(28)

Licensed vocational nurse (LVN) - A person who is currently licensed under Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4528c to use the title licensed vocational nurse and who may provide dialysis treatment after meeting the competency requirements specified for dialysis technicians.

(29)

Manager - An individual approved or selected by the department who assumes overall management of an end stage renal disease facility to ensure adequate and safe services are provided to patients.

(30)

Medical director - A physician who:

(A)

is board eligible or board certified in nephrology or pediatric nephrology by a professional board; or

(B)

during the five-year period prior to September 1, 1996, has served for at least 12 months as director of a dialysis program.

(31)

Medical review board - A medical review board that is appointed by a renal disease network organization which includes this state, with the network having a contract with the Health Care Financing Administration of the United States Department of Health and Human Services under 42 United States Code §1395rr.

(32)

Monitor - An individual approved or selected by the department who observes, supervises, consults, and educates a facility to correct identified violations of the statute or this chapter.

(33)

Notarized copy(ies) - A sworn affidavit stating that attached copy(ies) is a true and correct copy(ies) of the original documents.

(34)

Owner - One of the following which holds or will hold a license issued under the statute in the person's name or the person's assumed name:

(A)

a corporation;

(B)

a limited liability company;

(C)

an individual;

(D)

a partnership if a partnership name is stated in a written partnership agreement or an assumed name certificate;

(E)

all partners in a partnership if a partnership name is not stated in a written partnership agreement or an assumed name certificate; or

(F)

all co-owners under any other business arrangement.

(35)

Patient - An individual receiving dialysis treatment or training from an end stage renal disease facility.

(36)

Patient care plan - A written document prepared by the interdisciplinary team for a patient receiving end stage renal disease services.

(37)

Pediatric patient - An individual 18 years of age or younger under the care of a facility.

(38)

Person - An individual, corporation, or other legal entity.

(39)

Physician - An individual who is licensed to practice medicine under the Medical Practice Act, Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4495b.

(40)

Physician assistant - A person who is licensed as a physician assistant under the Physician Assistant Licensing Act, Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4495b-1.

(41)

Presurvey conference - A conference held with department staff and the applicant or his or her representatives to review licensure standards and survey documents and provide consultation prior to the on-site licensure inspection. The applicant's representatives shall include an individual who will be responsible for the day-to-day supervision of care by the facility.

(42)

Product water - The effluent water from the last component of the facility's water treatment system.

(43)

Progress note - A dated and signed written notation by a facility staff member summarizing facts about care and a patient's response during a given period of time.

(44)

Quality - The degree to which health services for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of desired outcomes that are consistent with current professional knowledge.

(45)

Quality assurance - An ongoing, objective, and systematic process of monitoring, evaluating, and improving the quality, appropriateness, and effectiveness of care. The term includes the quality management and quality improvement processes.

(46)

Quality management - A management philosophy used to plan and achieve desired processes and outcomes based upon a quality plan, which establishes quality objectives and the means to achieve; quality control, which is a process to evaluate actual performance against expected performance; and quality improvement, which is a process to identify, plan, and implement change for improvement.

(47)

Registered nurse (RN) - A person who is currently licensed under the Nursing Practice Act, Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4513 et seq. as a registered nurse.

(48)

Social worker - A person who:

(A)

is currently licensed as a social worker under the Human Resources Code, Chapter 50, and holds a masters degree from a graduate school of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work Education; or

(B)

has worked for at least two years as a social worker, one year of which was in a dialysis facility or transplantation program prior to September 1, 1976, and has established a consultative relationship with a social worker who has a masters degree from a graduate school of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work Education.

(49)

Supervising nurse (also may be known as the director of nursing) - An RN who:

(A)

has at least 18 months experience as an RN, which includes at least 12 months experience in dialysis which has been obtained within the last 24 months; or

(B)

has at least 18 months experience as an RN and holds a current certification from a nationally recognized board in nephrology nursing or hemodialysis.

(50)

Supervision - Authoritative procedural guidance by a qualified person for the accomplishment of a function or activity with initial direction and periodic inspection of the actual act of accomplishing the function or activity. Immediate supervision means the supervisor is actually observing the task or activity as it is performed. Direct supervision means the supervisor is on the premises but not necessarily immediately physically present where the task or activity is being performed. Indirect supervision means the supervisor is not on the premises but is accessible by two-way communication and able to respond to an inquiry when made, and is readily available for consultation.

(51)

Statute - The Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251.

(52)

Training - The learning of tasks through on-the-job experience or instruction by an individual who has the capacity through education or experience to perform the task or activity to be delegated.

(53)

Working day - Any day of the calendar week excluding Saturday or Sunday.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901699

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter B. Application and Issuance of a License

25 TAC §§117.11-117.16

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901700

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


25 TAC §§117.11-117.17

The new sections are adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.12.Application and Issuance of Temporary Initial License and First Annual License.

(a)

Application procedures. This section establishes the application procedures for obtaining a temporary initial license. All first-time applications for a license are applications for a temporary initial license. The application for a temporary initial license is also an application for the first annual license issued under the requirements in subsection (h) of this section .

(b)

Request for an application. Upon written request, the Texas Department of Health (department) shall furnish a person with an application packet and a copy of the statute and this chapter.

(c)

Application requirements. The applicant shall submit the information listed in paragraph (3) of this subsection to the department within six months from the date the department mails the application packet to the applicant.

(1)

If the department does not receive the information listed in paragraph (3) of this subsection within six months from the mailing date, the applicant must request a new application packet.

(2)

An applicant shall not misstate a material fact on any documents required to be submitted under this section.

(3)

The following items shall be submitted with the original application form and shall be originals or notarized copies:

(A)

an accurate and complete application which contains original signatures;

(B)

the initial license fee;

(C)

information on the applicant including name, street address, mailing address, social security number or franchise tax identification number, date of birth, and driver's license number;

(D)

the name, mailing address, and street address of the facility. The address provided on the application must be the address from which the facility will be operating and providing services;

(E)

the telephone number of the facility, the telephone number where the administrator can usually be reached when the facility is closed, and if the facility has a fax machine, the fax number;

(F)

a list of names and business addresses of all persons who own any percentage interest in the applicant including:

(i)

each limited partner and general partner if the applicant is a partnership; and

(ii)

each shareholder, member, director, and officer if the applicant is a corporation, limited liability company or other business entity;

(G)

a list of any businesses with which the applicant subcontracts and in which the persons listed under subparagraph (F) of this paragraph hold any percentage of the ownership;

(H)

if the applicant has held or holds a facility license or has been or is an affiliate of another licensed facility, the relationship, including the name and current or last address of the other facility and the date such relationship commenced and, if applicable, the date it was terminated;

(I)

if the facility is operated by or proposed to be operated under a management contract, the names and addresses of any person and organization having an ownership interest of any percentage in the management company;

(J)

a list of management and supervisory personnel, and a job description for each administrative and supervisory position;

(K)

a notarized statement attesting that the applicant is capable of meeting the requirements of this chapter;

(L)

a notarized attestation that each dialysis technician on staff has completed the training and competency evaluation programs. This attestation may be consolidated with the attestation described in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph;

(M)

a written plan for the orderly transfer of care of the applicant's patients and clinical records if the applicant is unable to maintain services under the license;

(N)

a copy of an approved fire safety inspection report from the local fire authority in whose jurisdiction the facility is based that is dated no earlier than 12 months prior to the date of the application;

(O)

an organizational structure of the staffing for the facility;

(P)

if an applicant is a corporation, a current letter from the state comptroller's office stating the corporation is in good standing or a notarized certification that the tax owed to the state under the Tax Code, Chapter 171, is not delinquent or that the corporation is exempt from the payment of the tax and is not subject to the Tax Code, Chapter 171;

(Q)

the organizational structure of the applicant which includes written full disclosure of the names and addresses of all owners and persons controlling any ownership interest in the facility. In the case of corporations, holding companies, partnerships, and similar organizations, the names and addresses of officers, directors, and stockholders, both beneficial and of record, when holding any percent, shall be disclosed;

(R)

the name(s) and credentials of:

(i)

the medical director or at least one physician on staff at the facility who is qualified to serve as the medical director;

(ii)

the license number(s) of the physician(s); and

(iii)

if applicable, all physician assistants and advanced practice nurses who will provide services at the facility;

(S)

the following data concerning the applicant, the applicant's affiliates, and the managers of the applicant:

(i)

denial, suspension, or revocation of an end stage renal disease facility license in any state; a license for any health care facility or a license for a home and community support services agency (agency) in any state; or any other enforcement action, such as (but not limited to) civil or criminal court action in any state;

(ii)

denial, suspension, or revocation of or other enforcement action against a facility license in any state, a license for any health care facility in any state, or a license for an agency in any state which is or was proposed by the licensing agency and the status of the proposal;

(iii)

surrender of a license before expiration of the license or allowing a license to expire in lieu of the department proceeding with enforcement action;

(iv)

federal or state (any state) criminal felony arrests or convictions;

(v)

federal or state Medicaid or Medicare sanctions or penalties relating to the operation of a health care facility or agency;

(vi)

operation of a health care facility or agency that has been decertified or terminated from participation in any state under Medicare or Medicaid; or

(vii)

debarment, exclusion, or contract cancellation in any state from Medicare or Medicaid; and

(T)

for the two-year period preceding the application date, the following data concerning the applicant, the applicant's affiliates, and the managers of the applicant:

(i)

federal or state (any state) criminal misdemeanor arrests or convictions;

(ii)

federal or state (any state) tax liens;

(iii)

unsatisfied final judgement(s);

(iv)

eviction involving any property or space used as a facility or health care facility in any state;

(v)

injunctive orders from any court; or

(vi)

unresolved final federal or state (any state) Medicare or Medicaid audit exceptions.

(4)

The applicant shall retain a copy of all documentation that is submitted to the department.

(d)

Application processing. Upon receipt of the application, including the required documentation described in paragraph (2) of this subsection and the initial license fee from the applicant, the department shall review the material to determine whether it is complete and correct.

(1)

The time periods for processing an application shall be in accordance with §117.15 of this title (relating to Time Periods for Processing and Issuing a License).

(2)

If a facility receives a notice from the department that some or all of the information required under subsection (c)(3) of this section is deficient, the facility shall submit the required information no later than six months from the date of the notice.

(A)

A facility which fails to submit the required information within six months from the notice date is considered to have withdrawn its application for a temporary initial license. The license fee will not be refunded.

(B)

A facility which has withdrawn its application must reapply for a license in accordance with this section, if it wishes to continue the application process. A new license fee is required.

(e)

Issuance of a temporary initial license.

(1)

Presurvey conference. Once the department has determined that the application form, the information required to accompany the application form, and the initial license fee are complete and correct, the department shall schedule a presurvey conference with the applicant in order to inform the applicant or his or her designee of the licensing standards for the facility. The presurvey conference will be held at the office designated by the department. All applicants are required to attend a presurvey conference unless the designated survey office waives the requirement.

(2)

Design and space inspection. The department shall conduct the design and space inspection described in §117.16(b)(1) of this title (relating to Inspections) prior to issuance of the temporary initial license, unless the department waives the requirement.

(3)

Issuance of license. After completion of the presurvey conference and the design and space inspection described in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the department:

(A)

will issue a temporary initial license; or

(B)

may deny the temporary initial license if the facility does not meet the requirements described in this section. The procedures for denying a temporary initial license shall be in accordance with §117.84 of this title (relating to Disciplinary Action).

(f)

Compliance required. Continuing compliance with the statute and this chapter is required during the temporary initial license period in order for a first annual license to be issued.

(g)

Withdrawal from the application process. An applicant may withdraw its application for a temporary initial license at any time.

(1)

An applicant who decides to withdraw its application for a temporary initial license during the application review process, shall submit to the department its written request to withdraw. The department shall acknowledge receipt of the request to withdraw. The license fee will not be refunded.

(2)

An applicant who decides to withdraw its application after the department issues the temporary initial license shall return the license certificate to the department with a written request to withdraw. The department shall acknowledge receipt of the request to withdraw. The license fee will not be refunded.

(h)

Issuance of first annual license. The department shall issue a first annual license to a facility if, after inspection and investigation during the temporary initial license period, it finds the applicant meets the requirements of this chapter. An inspection for the purposes of issuing a first annual license shall be completed in accordance with §117.16(c) of this title. The first annual license supersedes the temporary initial license and shall expire one year from the date of issuance of the temporary initial license.

(1)

If the temporary initial license is issued on the first day of a month, the first annual license expires on the last day of the preceding month of the next year.

(2)

If the temporary initial license is issued on the second or any subsequent day of a month, the first annual license expires on the last day of the month of issuance of the next year.

(i)

Noncompliance. The department may propose to deny the first annual license if, after inspection and investigation during the temporary license period, the department determines that the facility does not comply with the requirements of the statute or this chapter. Denial of a first annual license shall be in accordance with §117.84 of this title.

§117.13.Application and Issuance of Annual Renewal License.

(a)

The Texas Department of Health (department) shall send notice of expiration to an end stage renal disease facility (facility) 60 working days before the expiration date of a first annual or an annual renewal license. If the facility has not received notice of expiration from the department 45 calendar days prior to the expiration date, it is the duty of the facility to notify the department and request a renewal application for a license.

(b)

A licensee shall make timely and sufficient application for annual renewal of a license.

(1)

The licensee shall submit the following items to the department postmarked no later than 30 calendar days prior to the expiration date of the license:

(A)

an accurate and complete renewal application form which contains original signatures;

(B)

current, updated documents containing all the information required in §117.12(c)(3) of this title (relating to Application and Issuance of Temporary Initial License and First Annual License);

(C)

the renewal license fee; and

(D)

verification that the facility submitted the annual report required by §117.42 of this title (relating to Indicators of Quality of Care).

(2)

A facility is considered to have made timely and sufficient application for annual renewal of a license if the department receives the information required in this subsection prior to the expiration date of the license. If a facility makes timely and sufficient application for annual renewal of a license, the license does not expire until the application has been finally determined by the department.

(c)

A facility shall not misstate a material fact on any documents required to be submitted to the department or required to be maintained by the facility.

(d)

At the discretion of the department, an on-site inspection may be conducted for renewal of a license in accordance with §117.16(c) of this title (relating to Inspections).

(e)

The department shall issue an annual renewal license to a licensee who meets the minimum standards for a license in accordance with the provisions of the statute and this chapter.

(f)

The department may deny the issuance of an annual renewal license if:

(1)

based on the inspection report, the department determines that the facility does not meet or is in violation of any provision of the statute or this chapter;

(2)

renewal is prohibited by the Texas Education Code, §57.491 relating to defaults on guaranteed student loans; or

(3)

a facility discloses or the department discovers any of the information in §117.12(c)(3)(S) and (T) of this title.

(g)

If a licensee makes a timely application for renewal of a license, and action to revoke, suspend, or deny renewal of the license is pending, a renewal license will not be issued unless the department has determined the reason for the proposed action no longer exists.

(h)

A facility that fails to make timely and sufficient application for annual renewal of a license must cease operation upon expiration of the facility's license.

(1)

The department will notify a licensee that fails to timely renew a license that the facility must cease operation upon expiration of the license.

(2)

In order to resume operations, the facility must apply for a new temporary initial license in accordance with §117.12 of this title.

(3)

If a licensee fails to timely renew his or her license on or after August 1, 1990, because the licensee is or was on active duty with the armed forces of the United States of America serving outside the State of Texas, the licensee may renew the license pursuant to this paragraph.

(A)

Renewal of the license may be requested by the licensee, the licensee's spouse, or an individual having power of attorney from the licensee. The renewal form shall include a current address and telephone number for the individual requesting the renewal.

(B)

Renewal may be requested before or after the expiration of the license.

(C)

A copy of the official orders or other official military documentation showing that the licensee is or was on active military duty serving outside the State of Texas shall be filed with the department along with the renewal form.

(D)

A copy of the power of attorney from the licensee shall be filed with the department along with the renewal form if the individual having the power of attorney executes any of the documents required in this section.

(E)

A licensee renewing under this paragraph shall pay the applicable renewal fee.

(F)

A licensee is not authorized to operate the facility for which the license was obtained after the expiration of the license unless and until the licensee actually renews the license.

(G)

This paragraph applies to a licensee who is a sole practitioner or a partnership with only individuals as partners where all of the partners were on active duty with the armed forces of the United States serving outside the State of Texas.

(i)

If a suspension of a license overlaps a renewal date, the suspended license holder shall comply with the renewal procedures in this section; however, the department may not renew the license until the department determines that the reason for suspension no longer exists.

(j)

If the department revokes or does not renew a license, a person may apply for a temporary initial license by complying with the requirements of the statute and this chapter at the time of reapplication. The department may refuse to issue a license if the reason for revocation or nonrenewal continues to exist.

(k)

Upon revocation or nonrenewal, a license holder shall return the original license certificate to the department.

(l)

The procedures for revocation, suspension, or denial of a license shall be in accordance with §117.84 of this title (relating to Disciplinary Action).

§117.14.Change of Ownership or Services.

(a)

Change of ownership. The following provisions apply to change of ownership of an end stage renal disease facility (facility) and affect the condition of a license.

(1)

A licensee shall not transfer or assign its license from one person to another person.

(2)

The sale of stock of a corporate licensee does not cause this section to apply.

(3)

The provisions of this section are in addition to applicable federal law or regulation relating to change of ownership or control.

(4)

A person who desires to receive a license in its name for a facility licensed under the name of another person or to change the ownership of any facility shall submit a license application and the change of ownership license fee at least 60 calendar days prior to the desired date of the change of ownership.

(A)

The application shall be in accordance with §117.12 of this title (relating to Application and Issuance of Temporary Initial License and First Annual License).

(B)

In addition to the documents required in §117.12(c)(3) of this title, a person desiring a license under this subsection shall submit an affidavit signed by the previous owner acknowledging agreement with the change of ownership.

(C)

If the applicant is a corporation, an application submitted under this subsection shall include a copy of the applicant's articles of incorporation. If the applicant is a business entity other than a corporation, an application submitted under this subsection shall include a copy of the sales agreement.

(5)

The department shall issue a temporary initial license effective the date of the change of ownership when the person has complied with the provisions of §117.12 of this title.

(6)

If the presurvey conference and design and space inspection described in §117.12(e)(1) and (2) of this title, and the inspection described in §117.12(h) of this title are waived by the department, the department shall issue a first annual license in lieu of the temporary initial license to the new owner of the facility. The new owner's license is effective the date of the change of ownership and expires as described in §117.12(h) of this title.

(7)

The previous owner's license shall be void on the effective date of the change of ownership.

(b)

Change in services.

(1)

A person shall notify the department in writing no later than 30 calendar days prior to ceasing operation of a facility. The person shall return the original license certificate to the department by mailing or returning the original license certificate to the Health Facility Licensing Division, End Stage Renal Disease Facility Licensing Program, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas, 78756-3199.

(2)

A facility shall notify the department in writing 30 calendar days prior to construction, renovation or modification of the facility's physical plant.

(3)

A facility shall notify the department in writing of any change in the facility's main telephone number or mailing address (if different from the physical address) no later than 15 calendar days after the change is effective.

(4)

A facility shall obtain written approval by the department in order to add a service or increase the number of stations which appear on the facility license.

(A)

A facility shall submit a written request for approval 30 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of the change.

(i)

For a change in service, the written request shall be accompanied by evidence that the facility has reviewed staffing availability and added staff positions if indicated to accommodate the change.

(ii)

For an increase in stations, the written request shall be accompanied by the evidence required in clause (i) of this subparagraph and evidence that the water treatment system is of sufficient size to produce safe water to accommodate the increase.

(B)

The department may conduct an on-site inspection prior to taking action on the requested change.

(C)

The department shall send the facility notice of approval or disapproval of the change. If the requested increase is disapproved, the department shall state the reasons for disapproval and the information needed in order to approve the request.

(D)

No later than three weeks after initiating use of new stations, the facility shall submit to the department laboratory reports of chemical analysis and bacteriologic cultures of the product water demonstrating compliance with §§3.2.1 (relating to Water Bacteriology) and 3.2.2 (relating to Level of Chemical Contaminants) of the American National Standard, Hemodialysis Systems, March 1992 Edition, published by the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation, 3330 Washington Boulevard, Suite 400, Arlington, Virginia 22201, 1-800-703-525- 4890.

§117.16.Inspections.

(a)

General. The Texas Department of Health (department) may conduct an inspection at any time to verify compliance with the statute or this chapter. By applying for or holding a license, the facility consents to entry and inspection of the facility by the department or representative of the department in accordance with the statute and this chapter.

(1)

An authorized representative of the department (surveyor) may enter the premises of a license applicant or license holder at reasonable times during business hours to conduct an on-site inspection incidental to the issuance of a license, and at other times as the department considers necessary to ensure compliance with:

(A)

the statute or this chapter;

(B)

an order of the commissioner of health (commissioner);

(C)

a court order granting injunctive relief;

(D)

a corrective action plan; or

(E)

other enforcement action(s).

(2)

The surveyor is entitled to access all books, records, or other documents maintained by or on behalf of the facility to the extent necessary to ensure compliance with the statute, this chapter, an order of the commissioner, a court order granting injunctive relief, a corrective action plan, or other enforcement action. The department shall maintain the confidentiality of facility records as applicable under federal or state law. Ensuring compliance includes permitting photocopying by the department or providing photocopies to a department surveyor of any records or other information by or on behalf of the department as necessary to determine or verify compliance with the statute or this chapter.

(3)

An inspection conducted by the department shall be in accordance with the procedures set out in subsection (i) of this section.

(b)

Types of inspections.

(1)

Design and space inspection.

(A)

The department shall conduct an inspection to determine compliance with the design and space requirements described in §117.31 of this title (relating to Design and Space Requirements), the requirements in §117.32(a), (c), (e), and (g) of this title (relating to Equipment), and §117.33(b)(1) and (3) - (10) of this title (relating to Water Treatment and Reuse) prior to issuance of the temporary initial license, unless the department waives the requirement.

(B)

During any license period, the department may conduct a design and space inspection to determine whether modifications or renovations comply with §117.31 of this title.

(2)

Initial inspection for the issuance of the first annual license. A department surveyor shall conduct an initial inspection after the date of issuance of the temporary initial license to determine if the facility meets the requirements of the statute and this chapter for licensing. The initial inspection is an evaluation of compliance with all requirements of the statute and this chapter.

(3)

Renewal inspection. At the department's discretion, a department surveyor may perform an on-site inspection prior to renewal of a facility license to verify compliance with the statute and this chapter. The renewal inspection may include an evaluation of compliance with all requirements of the statute and this chapter.

(4)

Inspection to investigate a complaint. The department surveyor shall perform an inspection of a facility on-site or by mail if the facility has demonstrated noncompliance with the statute or this chapter, or to investigate a complaint received by the department.

(5)

Inspection based on annual report. After review of a facility's annual report, the department may request additional information or conduct an inspection by mail or on-site to determine compliance with the statute and this chapter.

(6)

Inspection related to a report(s) to the director. The department may conduct an inspection incidental to a report to the director described in §117.46 of this title (relating to Reports to the Director).

(7)

Follow-up inspection. A department surveyor shall perform an inspection on- site or by mail to verify completion of a corrective action plan(s) for deficiencies cited during any of the inspections described in paragraphs (1) - (6) of this subsection.

(c)

Inspection procedures.

(1)

Entrance conference. The department's surveyor shall hold a conference with the person who is in charge of the facility prior to commencing the inspection for the purpose of explaining the nature and scope of the inspection.

(2)

Evaluation of compliance. Except for the purposes of conducting an inspection under subsection (b)(1), (4), (6), or (7) of this section, an onsite inspection will include an evaluation to determine compliance with, at a minimum, each of the requirements in:

(A)

§117.32 of this title (relating to Equipment);

(B)

§117.33 of this title (relating to Water Treatment and Reuse);

(C)

§117.34 of this title (relating to Sanitary Conditions and Hygienic Practices);

(D)

§117.41 of this title (relating to Quality Assurance for Patient Care);

(E)

§117.43 of this title (relating to Provision and Coordination of Treatment and Services);

(F)

§117.44 of this title (relating to Qualifications of Staff);

(G)

§117.45 of this title (relating to Clinical Records);

(H)

§117.46 of this title (relating to Reports to the Director);

(I)

§117.61 of this title (relating to General Requirements);

(J)

§117.62 of this title (relating to Training Curricula and Instructors);

(K)

§117.63 of this title (relating to Competency Evaluation);

(L)

§117.64 of this title (relating to Documentation of Competency); and

(M)

§117.65 of this title (relating to Prohibited Acts).

(3)

Exit conference. After an inspection of a facility the surveyor shall hold an exit conference with the facility administrator or his or her designee. During the exit conference, the surveyor shall:

(A)

fully inform the facility representative of the preliminary finding(s) of the inspection;

(B)

give the person a reasonable opportunity to submit additional facts or other information to the surveyor in response to those findings; and

(C)

identify any records that were duplicated.

(4)

Written notice of findings.

(A)

The surveyor shall:

(i)

prepare and provide the facility administrator or his or her designee specific and timely written notice of the findings in accordance with subparagraphs (B) and (C) of this paragraph; or

(ii)

if the findings result in a referral described in §117.81(a)(1) of this title (relating to Corrective Action Plan), submit a written summary of the findings to the medical review board for its review and recommendation for appropriate action by the department.

(B)

If no deficiencies are found during an inspection, the department shall provide a statement indicating this fact.

(C)

If the written notice of findings includes deficiencies, the department and the facility shall comply with the procedure set out in this subparagraph.

(i)

The department shall provide the facility with a statement of the deficiencies at the time of the exit conference or within 10 working days after the exit conference.

(ii)

The facility administrator or administrator's designee shall sign the written statement of deficiencies and return it to the department with a corrective action plan(s) for each deficiency no later than 10 working days of its receipt of the statement of deficiencies. The signature does not indicate the administrator's or designee's agreement with deficiencies stated on the form.

(iii)

The facility shall come into compliance 60 calendar days prior to the expiration date of the license or no later than the dates designated in the corrective action plan(s), whichever comes first.

(iv)

The requirements in clause (i) of this subparagraph do not apply if the surveyor's written notice of findings results in a referral to the medical review board as described in subparagraph (A)(ii) of this paragraph,

(v)

A corrective action plan completion date shall not exceed 45 calendar days from the date the deficiency(ies) is cited (exit date of the survey).

(vi)

The facility may challenge any deficiency cited after receipt of the statement of deficiencies. A challenge to a deficiency(ies) shall be in accordance with this subparagraph.

(I)

The facility shall comply with clause (ii) of this subparagraph regardless of its intent to challenge the deficiency(ies).

(II)

An initial challenge to a deficiency(ies) shall be submitted in writing no later than five working days from the facility's receipt of the statement of deficiencies to the Program Director, End Stage Renal Disease Licensing Section or his or her designee, Health Facility Licensing Division, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas, 78756-3199, (512) 834-6646.

(III)

If the initial challenge is favorable to the department, the facility may request a review of the initial challenge by submitting a written request to the Director or his or her designee, Health Facility Licensing Division, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3199. The facility shall submit its written request for review of the initial challenge no later than five working days of its receipt of the department's response to the initial challenge. The department will not accept or review any documents that were not submitted with the initial challenge. A determination by the Director of the Health Facility Licensing Division relating to a challenge to a deficiency(ies) is the department's final determination concerning the challenge.

(IV)

The department shall respond to any written challenge submitted under subclause (II) or (III) of this clause no later than 15 working days from its receipt.

(V)

The department shall determine if a written corrective action plan(s) is acceptable. If the corrective action plan(s) is not acceptable to the department, the department shall notify the facility by telephone and request that the corrective action plan(s) be modified and resubmitted no later than 10 working days from the facility's receipt of such request.

(VI)

If the facility does not come into compliance by the required date of correction reflected on the corrective action plan(s), the department may:

(-a-)

appoint a monitor as described in §117.81 of this title;

(-b-)

appoint a temporary manager as described in §117.83 of this title (relating to Involuntary Appointment of Temporary Manager);

(-c-)

propose to deny, suspend, or revoke the license in accordance with §117.84 of this title (relating to Disciplinary Action).

(-d-)

assess an administrative penalty(ies) in accordance with §117.85 of this title (relating to Administrative Penalties); or

(-e-)

take all of the actions described in items (-a-) - (-d-) of this subclause.

(VII)

The department shall verify the correction of deficiencies by mail or on-site inspection.

(VIII)

Acceptance of a corrective action plan does not preclude the department from taking enforcement action as appropriate under §§117.83, 117.84, or 117.85 of this title.

(IX)

The department shall refer issues and complaints relating to the conduct of or action(s) by licensed health care professionals to the appropriate licensing board(s).

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901701

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter C. Minimum Standards for Design and Space, Equipment, Water Treatment and Reuse, and Sanitary and Hygienic Conditions

25 TAC §§117.32-117.34

The amendments are adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.34.Sanitary Conditions and Hygienic Practices.

(a)-(c)

(No change.)

(d)

Hepatitis B prevention.

(1)

(No change.)

(2)

Prevention requirements concerning patients.

(A)

(No change.)

(B)

Serologic screening of patients.

(i)

A patient new to dialysis or returning to a facility after extended hospitalization or absence of 30 calendar days or longer shall have been screened for HBsAg within one month before or at the time of admission to the facility or have a known anti-HBs status of at least 10 milli-international units per milliliter no more than 12 months prior to admission. The facility shall document how this screening requirement is met.

(ii)

(No change.)

(C)

Isolation procedures for the HBsAg-positive patient.

(i)-(iii)

(No change.)

(iv)

A patient new to dialysis or returning to a facility after extended hospitalization or absence of 30 calendar days or longer and who is admitted for treatment before results of HBsAg or anti-HBs testing are known shall undergo treatment as if the HBsAg test results were potentially positive, except that such a patient shall not be treated in the HBsAg isolation room, area, or machine.

(I)-(III)

(No change.)

(e)

(No change.)

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901702

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter D. Minimum Standards for Patient Care and Treatment

25 TAC §§117.41, 117.43-117.45

The amendments are adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.43.Provision and Coordination of Treatment and Services.

(a)

Patient rights. Each facility shall adopt, implement, and enforce policies and procedures appropriate to the patient population served which ensure each patient is:

(1)-(11)

(No change.)

(12)

transferred only for medical reasons, for the patient's welfare or that of other patients or staff members, or for nonpayment of fees. A patient shall be given 30 calendar days advance notice to ensure orderly transfer or discharge, except in cases where the patient presents an immediate risk to others;

(13)

provided protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation as those terms are defined in §1.204 of this title (relating to Abuse, Neglect, and Exploitation Defined);

(14)

provided information regarding advance directives and allowed to formulate such directives to the extent permitted by law. This includes documents executed under the Natural Death Act, Health and Safety Code, Chapter 672; Civil Practice and Remedies Code, Chapter 135 concerning durable power of attorney for health care; and Health and Safety Code, Chapter 674 concerning out-of-hospital do-not-resuscitate;

(15)

aware of the mechanisms and agencies to express a complaint against the facility without fear of reprisal or denial of services. A facility shall provide to each individual who is admitted to the facility a written statement that informs the individual that a complaint against the facility may be directed to the department. The statement shall be provided at the time of admission and shall advise the patient that registration of complaints may be filed with the director, Health Facility Licensing Division, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3199, 1-800-228-1570. Correctional institutions shall not be required to include the 1-800 number in information provided to patients in these facilities; and

(16)

fully informed of the rights listed in this subsection, the responsibilities established by the facility, and all rules and regulations governing patient conduct and responsibilities. A written copy of the patient's rights and responsibilities shall be provided to each patient or the patient's legal representative upon admission and a copy shall be posted with the facility license certificate.

(b)

(No change.)

(c)

Emergency preparedness.

(1)-(5)

(No change.)

(6)

A written disaster preparedness plan specific to each facility shall be developed and in place. The plan shall be based on an assessment of the probability and type of disaster in each region and the local resources available to the facility. The plan shall include procedures designed to minimize harm to patients and staff along with ensuring safe facility operations. The plan and in-service programs for patients and staff shall include provisions or procedures for responsibility of direction and control, communications, alerting and warning systems, evacuation, and closure. Each staff member employed by or under contract with the facility shall be able to demonstrate their role or responsibility to implement the facility's disaster preparedness plan.

(7)

A facility shall have an emergency lighting system capable of providing sufficient illumination to allow safe discontinuation of treatments and safe evacuation from the building. Battery pack systems shall be maintained and tested quarterly. If a facility maintains a back-up generator, the generator must be installed, tested and maintained in accordance with the National Fire Protection Association 110, Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems, 1993 Edition (NFPA 110), published by the National Fire Protection Association.

(8)

A facility shall develop and post a telephone number listing specific to the facility equipment and locale to assist staff in contacting mechanical and technical support in the event of an emergency.

(d)

Medication storage and administration.

(1)-(2)

(No change.)

(3)

All verbal or telephone orders shall be received by a licensed nurse or physician assistant. Orders relating to a specific service (e.g. dietary services), may be received by the licensed professional responsible for providing the service (e.g. dietitian) and countersigned by the physician within 15 calendar days.

(4)-(8)

(No change.)

(e)

Nursing services.

(1)-(6)

(No change.)

(7)

Sufficient direct care staff shall be on-site to meet the needs of the patients.

(A)

The staffing level for a facility shall not exceed four patients per licensed nurse or patient care technician per patient shift. During treatment of eight or more patients, the licensed nurse functioning in the charge role shall not be included in this ratio.

(B)

For pediatric dialysis patients, one licensed nurse shall be provided on- site for each patient weighing less than ten kilograms and one licensed nurse provided on-site for every two patients weighing from ten to 20 kilograms.

(8)-(9)

(No change.)

(10)

The initial patient evaluation shall be initiated by a licensed nurse functioning in the charge role or a registered nurse at the time of the first treatment in the facility and completed by a registered nurse within the first three treatments.

(f)-(i)

(No change.)

(j)

Medical services.

(1)

(No change.)

(2)

Medical staff.

(A)-(B)

(No change.)

(C)

At a minimum, each patient receiving dialysis in the facility shall be seen by a physician on the medical staff once every two weeks during the patient's treatment time. Home patients shall be seen by a physician at least every three months. The record of these contacts shall include evidence of assessment for new and recurrent problems and review of dialysis adequacy, monthly for in-facility patients and quarterly for home patients.

(D)

(No change.)

(E)

Orders for treatment shall be in writing and signed by the prescribing physician. Routine orders for treatment shall be updated at least annually.

(i)

Orders for hemodialysis treatment shall include length of treatment, dialyzer, blood flow rate, dialysate composition, target weight, medications including heparin, and, as needed, specific infection control measures.

(ii)

Orders for peritoneal dialysis treatment shall include fill volume(s), number of exchanges, dialysate concentrations, catheter care, medications, and, as needed, specific infection control measures.

(F)

(No change.)

(k)

(No change.)

(l)

Temporary and transient admissions.

(1)

Temporary admissions. If a facility dialyzes a patient who is normally dialyzed in another local facility, the referring and receiving facilities shall meet the requirements in this paragraph.

(A)

The individual to be treated by the receiving facility must be a patient of a physician who is a member of the medical staffs of the referring and receiving facilities.

(B)

The referring and receiving facilities shall establish, implement, and enforce written policies and procedures for communication of medical information and transfer of clinical records between facilities.

(C)

The receiving facility shall continuously evaluate staffing levels and utilize this information in determining whether to accept a temporary admission for treatment.

(D)

The receiving facility shall obtain the information described in §117.45(e) of this title (relating to Clinical Records) prior to providing dialysis. However, if the referring facility is closed when the patient's need for dialysis treatment is identified, the receiving facility may provide dialysis with, at a minimum, the following information:

(i)

orders for treatment;

(ii)

hepatitis B status;

(iii)

medical justification by the physician ordering treatment that the patient's need for dialysis outweighs the need for the additional clinical information set out in §117.45(e) of this title.

(E)

In the event a temporary patient's hepatitis status is unknown, the patient may undergo treatment as if the HBsAg test results were potentially positive, except that such a patient shall not be treated in the HBsAg isolation room, area, or machine.

(2)

Transient admissions. If a facility dialyzes a patient who is normally dialyzed in a distant facility, the facility shall meet the requirements in this paragraph.

(A)

The facility shall continuously evaluate staffing levels and utilize this information in determining whether to accept a transient patient for treatment.

(B)

The facility shall obtain the information described in §117.45(e) of this title (relating to Clinical Records) prior to providing dialysis. However, if the transient patient arrives unannounced, the facility may provide dialysis with, at a minimum, the following information:

(i)

evidence of evaluation of the patient by a physician on the staff of the facility;

(ii)

orders for treatment;

(iii)

hepatitis B status;

(iv)

medical justification by the physician ordering treatment that the patient's need for dialysis outweighs the need for the additional clinical information set out in §117.45(e) of this title.

(C)

In the event a transient patient's hepatitis status is unknown, the patient may undergo treatment as if the HBsAg test results were potentially positive, except that such a patient shall not be treated in the HBsAg isolation room, area, or machine.

(m)

Laboratory services. A facility that provides laboratory services shall comply with the requirements of Federal Public Law 100-578, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA 1988). CLIA 1988 applies to all facilities that examine human specimens for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment of, or the assessment of the health of, human beings.

(n)

Illegal remuneration prohibited. A facility shall not violate the Health and Safety Code, §161.191, et seq. concerning the prohibition on illegal remuneration for the purpose of securing or soliciting patients or patronage.

(o)

Do-not-resuscitate orders. The facility shall comply with the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 674 concerning out-of-hospital do-not-resuscitate orders.

(p)

Audits of billing. A facility shall develop, implement, and enforce a compliance policy for monitoring its receipt and expenditure of state or federal funds.

(q)

Student health care professionals. If the facility has a contract or agreement with an accredited school of health care to use their facility for a portion of the students' clinical experience, those students may provide care under the following conditions.

(1)

Students may be used in facilities, provided the instructor gives class supervision and assumes responsibility for all student activities occurring within the facility. If the student is licensed (e.g., a licensed vocational nurse attending a registered nurse program for licensure as a registered nurse) the facility shall ensure that the administration of any medication(s) is within the student's licensed scope of practice.

(2)

A student may administer medications only if:

(A)

on assignment as a student of his or her school of health care; and

(B)

the instructor is on the premises and immediately supervises the administration of medication by an unlicensed student and the administration of such medication is within the instructor's licensed scope of practice.

(3)

Students shall not be used to fulfill the requirement for administration of medications by licensed personnel.

(4)

Students shall not be considered when determining staffing levels required by the facility.

(r)

Complaint resolution. A facility shall adopt, implement, and enforce procedures for the resolution of complaints relevant to quality of care or services rendered by licensed health care professionals and other members of the facility staff, including contract services or staff. The facility shall document the receipt and the disposition of the complaint. The investigation and documentation must be completed within 30 calendar days after the facility receives the complaint, unless the facility has and documents reasonable cause for a delay.

§117.44.Qualifications of Staff.

(a)-(b)

(No change.)

(c)

Nursing staff.

(1)

(No change.)

(2)

Each nurse assigned charge responsibilities shall be a registered nurse and have six months experience in hemodialysis obtained within the last 24 months. An RN who holds a current certification from a nationally recognized board in nephrology nursing or hemodialysis may substitute the certification for the six months experience in dialysis obtained within the last 24 months. The responsibilities of an RN functioning as a charge nurse shall include:

(A)

making daily assignments based on patient needs;

(B)

providing immediate supervision of direct patient care;

(C)

making patient assessments when indicated; and

(D)

communicating with the physician(s), social worker(s) and dietitian(s).

(3)

The following provisions create an exception to the requirement that the licensed nurse functioning in the charge role be a registered nurse.

(A)

A licensed vocational nurse (LVN) who meets one of the following requirements may function in the charge role:

(i)

the LVN was employed in a facility as of September 1, 1996, and had two years full time experience functioning in the charge role in a facility prior to September 1, 1996; or

(ii)

the LVN has two years full time experience in hemodialysis, is certified as a hemodialysis nurse by a nationally recognized board (e.g. Board of Nephrology Nurse and Technician Examination), has completed a facility based training program for the charge role, and has demonstrated competence in the charge role.

(B)

The responsibilities of an LVN functioning in the charge role, as delegated by the medical director, shall include:

(i)

making daily assignments based on protocols to allow change of assignments based on patient needs;

(ii)

providing immediate supervision of the direct patient care provided by dialysis technicians;

(iii)

monitoring patients for changes in condition and notifying a RN or physician of such changes;

(iv)

communicating with the physician(s), social worker(s) and dietitian(s).

(C)

A LVN with two years full time experience in dialysis may function in the charge role in the temporary absence of the nurse functioning in the charge role at the facility.

(D)

If a LVN is functioning in the charge role, in order to provide the direct supervision of dialysis technicians required by the statute, the facility's full time supervising nurse shall establish written protocols addressing the supervision of the technicians. The implementation of the protocol shall be considered to constitute direct supervision of the technicians by the RN. In the alternative, an RN who is the instructor of the facility's dialysis technician course, another RN, or a physician may provide onsite, direct supervision of the dialysis technicians.

(E)

If a facility uses LVNs in the charge role, there must be written protocols specific to the facility to guide actions to be taken by the LVN functioning in the charge role in the event a patient's condition changes during treatment. These protocols must be approved by the medical director and be congruent with the state practice acts for registered nurses and licensed vocational nurses.

(F)

In accordance with Title 22, Texas Administrative Code (TAC), §§217.12 relating to designations for registered nurse/titles deemed misleading, an LVN functioning in the charge role may not be titled a "charge nurse."

(4)

(No change.)

(d)

(No change.)

(e)

Social services staff. Each social worker shall:

(1)

be licensed as a social worker under the Human Resources Code, Chapter 50, and hold a masters degree in social work from a graduate school of social work accredited by the Council on Social Work Education; or

(2)

(No change.)

(f)

Technical staff. A facility shall have the technical staff as described in this subsection. The facility's technical staff may be one or more individuals (including nursing staff) employed by or under contract with the facility as long as the individual(s) meets the minimum qualifications for each required level of responsibility as described in this subsection.

(1)

All technical staff. Only individuals qualified by training, education, or experience may operate, repair, or replace components of the systems utilized in providing dialysis treatment or reprocessing dialyzers.

(A)

Technical staff shall have the following minimum education, training and experience and documentation of such education, training, and experience shall be maintained on file in the facility:

(i)

high school diploma or equivalent. For technical staff employed by the facility for two or more years prior to the effective date of these rules, this requirement is waived; and

(ii)

training or experience in one or more of the following:

(I)

completion of a college based technical dialysis program;

(II)

completion of the didactic training and education requirement for patient care technicians set out in §117.62(a) and (b) of this title (relating to Training Curricula and Instructors);

(III)

current certification in technical aspects of dialysis by a nationally recognized testing organization; or

(IV)

12 months experience in dialysis within the last two years.

(B)

The technical staff trainee(s) shall pass a written competency examination, demonstrate skills related to the required level of responsibility and be certified by the medical director as competent to perform their duties.

(C)

The technical staff shall demonstrate competency for the required level of responsibility through written and skills testing annually. Evidence of competency shall be documented in writing and maintained in the personnel file.

(D)

The technical staff shall complete a minimum of five hours of continuing education with a technical or end stage renal disease focus annually. The continuing education may be obtained through informal or formal education programs and shall be documented in facility files.

(2)

Technical supervisory staff. The technical supervisor is responsible for the supervision of technical services. The technical supervisor shall meet the education, training, and experience requirements described in this paragraph.

(A)

The technical supervisor shall meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(B)

At a minimum, the technical supervisor shall demonstrate competency in equipment maintenance and repair; mechanical service; water treatment systems; and reprocessing of hemodialyzers (if applicable).

(i)

Prior to initially assuming technical supervisory responsibility, a technical supervisor trainee shall successfully complete the facility's orientation and training course(s) as established for each technical area.

(ii)

The training course(s) shall be approved by the medical director and follow a written curriculum with stated objectives. The curriculum shall include all items noted in paragraphs (3)(B)(ii), (4)(B), and (5)(A) of this subsection.

(3)

Water treatment system staff.

(A)

Facility staff responsible for the water treatment system shall demonstrate understanding of the risks to patients of exposure to water which has not been treated so as to remove contaminants and impurities. Documentation of training to assure safe operation of the water treatment system shall be maintained for each individual who operates (regularly or intermittently) the system.

(B)

The staff responsible for the water treatment system shall meet the education, training, and experience requirements described in paragraph (1) of this subsection and shall demonstrate competency by:

(i)

successful completion of the facility training course specific to water treatment and related tasks. The training course shall be approved by the medical director and follow a written curriculum with stated objectives;

(ii)

completion of a training curriculum which includes the following minimum components:

(I)

introduction to end stage renal disease;

(II)

principles of hemodialysis;

(III)

principles of infection control and basic microbiology for water treatment systems, machines, and sampling techniques;

(IV)

rationale for water treatment for dialysis;

(V)

risks and hazards of the use of unsafe water for dialysis;

(VI)

current water standards;

(VII)

source water characteristics;

(VIII)

communication with source water agencies and water treatment vendors;

(IX)

selection of water treatment equipment;

(X)

water purification equipment to include filtration, carbon adsorption and reverse osmosis;

(XI)

ion exchange to include softeners and deionizers;

(XII)

water distribution system and other equipment specific to the facility;

(XIII)

monitoring system performance to include on-line and off-line monitoring, aseptic sample collection, incubation of samples and interpretation of results;

(XIV)

evaluation of water treatment component performance to include filters, activated carbon adsorption beds, reverse osmosis, and ion exchange; and

(XV)

evaluation of system performance to include monitoring schedules and review of system failures;

(iii)

confirmation of the ability to distinguish all primary colors; and

(iv)

successful completion of the facility's orientation and training course as established for the water treatment system technician trainee prior to the trainee's initial assumption of responsibility.

(4)

Equipment maintenance and repair staff. The staff responsible for equipment maintenance and repair shall meet the education, training, and experience requirements described in paragraph (1) of this subsection and shall demonstrate competency by:

(A)

successful completion of the facility training course outlined in paragraph (3) of this subsection, relating to water treatment systems;

(B)

successful completion of a training curriculum which includes the following minimum components:

(i)

prevention of transmission of hepatitis through dialysis equipment;

(ii)

safety requirements of dialysate delivery systems;

(iii)

repair and maintenance of dialysis and other equipment specific to the facility;

(iv)

electrical safety, including lockout or tagout;

(v)

emergency equipment maintenance;

(vi)

building maintenance;

(vii)

fire safety and prevention requirements; and

(viii)

emergency response procedures; and

(C)

successful completion of a written competency exam and demonstration of skills specific to the facility's mechanical and equipment service and water treatment and distribution systems.

(5)

Reprocessing staff. The staff responsible for reprocessing hemodialyzers and other supplies shall meet the education, training, and experience requirements described in paragraph (1) of this subsection and shall demonstrate competency by:

(A)

successful completion of a training curriculum which includes the components in the American National Standard, Reuse of Hemodialyzers, 1993 Edition, §5.2.1 published by the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation, 3330 Washington Boulevard, Suite 400, Arlington, Virginia 22201; and

(B)

successful completion of a written competency exam which includes return demonstration of skills specific to reprocessing of hemodialyzers and other dialysis supplies.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901703

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


25 TAC §117.46

The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901704

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter E. Dialysis Technicians

25 TAC §117.65

The amendment is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.65.Prohibited Acts.

(a)

(No change.)

(b)

Performance of the following acts by a dialysis technician who is not a licensed vocational nurse is prohibited:

(1)

initiation or discontinuation of dialysis via a central catheter, manipulation of a central catheter, or dressing changes for a central catheter;

(2)-(3)

(No change.)

(4)

performance of non-access site arterial puncture;

(5)

acceptance of physician orders; or

(6)

provision of hemodialysis treatment to pediatric patients under 14 years of age or under 35 kilograms.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901705

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter F. Corrective Action Plan and Enforcement

25 TAC §§117.81-117.86

The amendment and new sections are adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§117.84.Disciplinary Action.

(a)

The Texas Department of Health (department) may deny, suspend, or revoke a license if the applicant or facility:

(1)

fails to comply with any provision of the statute;

(2)

fails to comply with any provision of this chapter;

(3)

commits fraud, misrepresentation, or concealment of a material fact on any documents required to be submitted to the department or required to be maintained by the facility pursuant to this chapter;

(4)

aids, abets, or permits the commission of an illegal act; or

(5)

fails to comply with an order of the commissioner of health or another enforcement procedure under the statute.

(b)

The department may deny a license if the applicant or licensee fails to provide the required license fee, application or renewal information.

(c)

The department may suspend or revoke an existing valid license or disqualify a person from receiving a license because of a person's conviction of a felony or misdemeanor if the crime directly relates to the duties and responsibilities of a licensed facility.

(1)

In determining whether a criminal conviction directly relates, the department shall consider the provisions of Texas Civil Statutes, Article 6252-13c.

(2)

The following felonies and misdemeanors directly relate because these criminal offenses indicate an inability or a tendency for the person to be unable to own or operate a facility:

(A)

a misdemeanor violation of the statute;

(B)

a conviction relating to deceptive business practices;

(C)

a misdemeanor or felony involving moral turpitude;

(D)

a misdemeanor of practicing any health-related profession without a required license;

(E)

a conviction under any federal or state law relating to drugs, dangerous drugs, or controlled substances;

(F)

an offense under the Texas Penal Code, Title 5, involving a patient or a patient of any health care facility, a home and community support services agency, or a health care professional; or

(G)

other misdemeanors and felonies which indicate an inability or tendency for the person to be unable to own or operate a facility if action by the department will promote the intent of the statute, this chapter, or Texas Civil Statutes, Article 6252-13c.

(3)

Upon a licensee's felony conviction, felony probation revocation, revocation or parole, or revocation of mandatory supervision, the license shall be revoked.

(d)

If the department proposes to deny, suspend, or revoke a license, the department shall notify the facility by certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery of the reasons for the proposed action and offer the facility an opportunity for a hearing.

(1)

The facility shall request a hearing within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice. Receipt of the notice is presumed to occur on the tenth calendar day after the notice is mailed to the last address known to the department unless another date is reflected on a United States Postal Service return receipt.

(2)

The request for a hearing shall be in writing and submitted to the Director, Health Facility Licensing Division, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3199.

(3)

A hearing shall be conducted pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, Texas Government Code, Chapter 2001, and the department's formal hearing procedures in Chapter 1 of this title (relating to Texas Board of Health).

(4)

If the facility does not request a hearing in writing within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice, the facility is deemed to have waived the opportunity for hearing and the proposed action shall be taken.

(5)

If the facility fails to appear or be represented at the scheduled hearing, the facility has waived the right to a hearing and the proposed action shall be taken.

(e)

If the department suspends a license, the suspension shall remain in effect until the department determines that the reason for suspension no longer exists. An authorized representative of the department shall investigate prior to making a determination.

(1)

During the time of suspension, the suspended license holder shall return the license to the department.

(2)

If a suspension overlaps a renewal date, the suspended license holder shall comply with the renewal procedures in this chapter; however, the department may not renew the license until the department determines that the reason for suspension no longer exists.

(f)

If the department revokes or does not renew a license, a person may reapply for a license by complying with the requirements and procedures in this chapter at the time of reapplication. The department may refuse to issue a license if the reason for revocation or nonrenewal continues to exist.

(g)

Upon revocation or nonrenewal, a license holder shall return the license to the department.

§117.85.Administrative Penalties.

(a)

Under §§251.066 - 251.070 of the statute, the Texas Department of Health (department) may assess an administrative penalty against a person who violates the statute or this chapter.

(b)

The penalty may not exceed $1,000 for each violation. Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

(c)

In determining the amount of an administrative penalty assessed under this section, the department shall consider:

(1)

the seriousness of the violation;

(2)

the history of previous violations;

(3)

the amount necessary to deter future violations;

(4)

efforts made to correct the violation; and

(5)

any other matters that justice may require.

(d)

All proceedings for the assessment of an administrative penalty are subject to the Administrative Procedure Act, Government Code, Chapter 2001.

(e)

If after investigation of a possible violation and the facts surrounding that possible violation the department determines that a violation has occurred, the department shall give written notice of the violation to the person alleged to have committed the violation. The notice shall include:

(1)

a brief summary of the alleged violation;

(2)

a statement of the amount of the proposed penalty, based on the factors listed in subsection (c)(2) of this section. This statement shall be mailed to the facility no later than 90 working days after the investigation is completed (exit date); and

(3)

a statement of the person's right to a hearing on the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both the occurrence of the violation and the amount of the penalty.

(f)

Not later than the 20th calendar day after the date the notice is received, the person notified may accept the determination of the department made under this section, including the recommended penalty, or make a written request for a hearing on that determination.

(g)

If the person notified of the violation accepts the determination of the department, the commissioner shall issue an order approving the determination and ordering that the person pay the recommended penalty.

(h)

If the person notified fails to respond in a timely manner to the notice or if the person requests a hearing, the commissioner's designee shall:

(1)

set a hearing;

(2)

give written notice of the hearing to the person; and

(3)

designate a hearings examiner to conduct the hearing. The hearings examiner shall make findings of fact and conclusions of law and shall promptly issue to the commissioner a proposal for decision as to the occurrence of the violation and a recommendation as to the amount of the proposed penalty if a penalty is determined to be warranted.

(i)

Based upon the findings of fact and conclusions of law and the recommendation of the hearings examiner, the commissioner by order may find that a violation has occurred and may assess a penalty, or may find that no violation has occurred. The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall give notice of the commissioner's order to the person notified. The notice shall include:

(1)

separate statements of the findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(2)

the amount of any penalty assessed; and

(3)

a statement of the right of the person to judicial review of the commissioner's order.

(j)

Not later than the 30th calendar day after the date the decision is final, the person shall:

(1)

pay the penalty in full;

(2)

pay the amount of the penalty and file a petition for judicial review contesting the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both the occurrence of the violation and the amount of the penalty; or

(3)

without paying the amount of the penalty, file a petition for judicial review contesting the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both the occurrence of the violation and the amount of the penalty. Within the 30-day period, a person who acts under this paragraph may:

(A)

stay enforcement of the penalty by:

(i)

paying the amount of the penalty to the court for placement in an escrow account; or

(ii)

giving to the court a supersedeas bond that is approved by the court for the amount of the penalty and that is effective until all judicial review of the board's order is final; or

(B)

request the court to stay enforcement of the penalty by:

(i)

filing with the court a sworn affidavit of the person stating that the person is financially unable to pay the amount of the penalty and is financially unable to give the supersedeas bond; and

(ii)

giving a copy of the affidavit to the department by certified mail.

(k)

If the department receives a copy of an affidavit under subsection (j)(3)(B) of this section, the department may file with the court, within five calendar days after the date the copy is received, a contest to the affidavit.

§117.86.Recovery of Costs.

(a)

The Texas Department of Health (department) may assess reasonable expenses and costs against a person in a administrative hearing if, as a result of the hearing, the person's license is denied, suspended, or revoked or if administrative penalties are assessed against the person.

(b)

The person shall pay expenses and costs assessed under this section not later than the 30th calendar day after the date of a board order requiring the payment of expenses and costs is final.

(c)

The department may refer the matter to the attorney general for collection of the expenses and costs.

(d)

If the attorney general brings an action against a person under §251.063 or §251.065 of the statute or to enforce an administrative penalty assessed, and an injunction is granted against the person or the person is found liable for a civil or administrative penalty, the attorney general may recover, on behalf of the attorney general and the department, reasonable expenses and costs.

(e)

For purposes of this section, "reasonable expenses and costs" include expenses incurred by the department and the attorney general in the investigation, initiation, or prosecution of an action, including reasonable investigative costs, court costs, attorney's fees, witness fees, and deposition expenses.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901706

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter F. Enforcement

25 TAC §§117.82-117.85

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §251.002, which provides the Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt fees in amounts reasonable and necessary to defray the cost of administering the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 251; §251.003 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to implement the statute, including requirements for the issuance, renewal, denial, suspension, and revocation of a license to operate an ESRD facility; §251.014 which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules to contain minimum standards to protect the health and safety of a patient in an ESRD facility; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901707

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: October 30, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 157. Emergency Medical Care

Subchapter F. Advisory Committee

25 TAC §157.101

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts an amendment to §157.101 concerning the Emergency Health Care Advisory Committee (committee) with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12083). The committee provides assistance to the Texas Board of Health (board) and the department on the need for emergency medical services (EMS) in the state including the specialized needs of pediatric patients, and hospital administrative and operational considerations relating to EMS/trauma systems development and facility designation.

In 1993, the Texas Legislature passed Senate Bill 383 (now codified in the Government Code, Chapter 2110) which requires that each state agency adopt rules to establish advisory committees. The rules must state the purpose and composition of the committee, describe the tasks of the committee, describe the manner in which the committee will report to the agency, and establish a date on which the committee will be automatically abolished unless the governing body of the agency affirmatively votes to continue the committee's existence.

In 1995, the board established a rule relating to the Emergency Health Care Advisory Committee. The rule states that the committee will automatically be abolished on May 1, 1999. The board has now reviewed and evaluated the committee and has determined that the committee should continue in existence until May 1, 2003.

This section amends provisions relating to the operation of the committee. Specifically, language is revised to reference the Government Code; to continue the committee until May 1, 2003; to address changes to the composition of the committee; to clarify that members holdover until their replacement is appointed; to require that the presiding officer and the assistant presiding officer of the committee will be selected by the chairman of the board for a term of two years; to allow a temporary vacancy in the office of assistant presiding officer to be filled by vote of the committee until appointment by the chairman of the board occurs; to clarify that the committee is prohibited from holding an executive session (closed meeting) for any reason; to clarify that the committee and its members may not participate in legislative activity in the name of the board, the department, or the committee except with certain approval; to require the committee's annual report in May rather than January; and to reference reimbursement of a member's expenses if authorized by the General Appropriations Act or budget execution process. These changes will clarify procedures for the committee and emphasize the advisory nature of the committee.

The department is making the following minor changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §157.101(f), proposed language referencing existing members continuing to serve was deleted since the addition of a new consumer member will not affect the service by the existing members.

Change: Concerning §157.101(g), the language was revised to clarify that members holdover past the expiration of their term until their successor is appointed.

The following comments were received concerning the proposed amendment. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Concerning proposed §157.101(f)(1)(B), there were 11 comments supporting the concept of a legislated governor-appointed advisory committee to the board on EMS and stating that the proposed amendment does not address the issue of providing adequate comment from the prehospital EMS community to the board. The commenters went on to request that a separate EMS Advisory Committee be established by the board because the current committee structure does not include sufficient prehospital EMS representation.

Response: The department disagrees. Prior to establishment of the committee in 1995, the board was advised by three separate committees - the Trauma Technical Advisory Committee, the Pediatric EMS Advisory Committee for Children, and the Texas EMS Advisory Council. The functions of the three committees were consolidated into one committee to promote efficiency, decrease duplication, promote objectivity, and increase statewide coordination and networking. The membership of the one committee varied from the memberships of the three committees because of the inability to have an efficient single committee with a representative for every level of EMS certificate or other interested parties and in order to stress the importance of consumer input. To address the concerns of commenters, the board expressly required in the 1995 rule that three standing subcommittees were established - the pediatric subcommittee, the trauma subcommittee, and the EMS subcommittee. The board is continuing this structure in this adopted rule. Since subcommittees may include noncommittee members, additional prehospital EMS providers may be on the standing EMS subcommittee or any other standing committee. A new advisory committee for prehospital EMS providers is not necessary. In addition any person, including any prehospital EMS provider, may provide comments to the committee at each meeting, even if the individual is not a committee member.

The legislated - governor appointed EMS committee recommended by the Sunset Commission will be the subject of proposed legislation during the 76th legislative session. The department will be making revisions to its committee structure if the legislation is enacted. No change was made as a result of these comments.

Comment: Concerning proposed §157.101(f)(1)(B)(viii), there was one comment requesting that the wording a "facility" administrator be changed to a "hospital" administrator.

Response: The department disagrees that the term should be changed to "hospital' since that would encompass any hospital administrator. The department has revised subsection (f)(2)(H) to state that the member shall be a designated trauma facility administrator which is the appropriate category of membership specifically interested in EMS service.

Comment: Concerning proposed §157.101(f)(1)(B)(viii), there were two comments that representation of hospitals was insufficient, particularly rural hospitals.

Response: The department disagrees because the various categories of persons involved in EMS are already represented on the committee with a reasonable limit of 15 on the total number of members. In making appointments the board does consider the nominee's representation of an urban or rural area. No change was made as a result of this comment.

Comment: Concerning §157.101(h), there was one comment that the committee's presiding officers should not be appointed by the board chair, but elected by the committee, because the committee members know better who would be the best persons to hold those positions.

Response: The department disagrees because the committee is established and the membership appointed by the board to advise the board on EMS and trauma system issues. The leadership of the committee is extremely important to assure that the board's goals are being addressed appropriately and the board feels that it should not delegate the responsibility for choosing that leadership. No change was made as a result of this comment.

The following organizations, associations, or provider groups commented on the amendment: Emergency Health Care Advisory Committee; EMS Association of Texas; Texas Ambulance Association; Advanced Ambulance Services, Inc.; Brady-McCulloch County EMS; Gaddy's Ambulance Service, Inc.; Life Ambulance Service, Inc.; LifeNet, Inc.; Littlefield EMS; Med-Care EMS, Inc.; Plainview Fire Department; and Washington County EMS. The comments received were generally favorable of the rule as proposed; however the commenters had specific concerns and offered suggestions for change.

The amendment is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, §11.016, which allows the board to establish advisory committees; the Government Code, Chapter 2110, which sets standards for the evaluation of advisory committees by the agencies for which they function; and the Health and Safety Code, §12.001, which provides the board with authority to adopt rules for the performance of every duty imposed by law upon the board, the department, and the commissioner of health.

§157.101.Emergency Health Care Advisory Committee.

(a)

The committee. An advisory committee shall be appointed under and governed by this section.

(1)

(No change.)

(2)

The advisory committee is established under the provisions of the Health and Safety Code, §11.016, which states the Texas Board of Health (board) may appoint advisory committees.

(b)

Applicable law. The committee is subject to the Government Code, Chapter 2110, concerning state agency advisory committees.

(c)-(d)

(No change.)

(e)

Review and duration. By May 1, 2003, the board will initiate and complete a review of the committee to determine whether the committee should be continued, consolidated with another committee, or abolished. If the committee is not continued or consolidated, the committee shall be abolished on that date.

(f)

Composition. The committee shall be composed of 15 members appointed by the board as follows:

(1)

five shall be consumer members; and

(2)

ten shall be non-consumer members as follows:

(A)

an emergency physician;

(B)

a provider of prehospital emergency medical services;

(C)

an emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency medical technician- intermediate (EMT-I) or emergency medical technician-paramedic (EMT-P);

(D)

an emergency nurse;

(E)

a pediatrician;

(F)

a trauma surgeon;

(G)

a trauma nurse;

(H)

a designated trauma facility administrator;

(I)

a fire department provider; and

(J)

an EMS medical director.

(g)

Terms of office. The term of office of each member shall be six years. Members shall serve after expiration of their term until their successor is appointed.

(1)

Members shall be appointed for staggered terms so that the terms of a substantially equivalent number of members will expire on December 31st of each even-numbered year.

(2)

(No change.)

(h)

Officers. The chairman of the board shall appoint a presiding officer and an assistant presiding officer to begin serving on May 1 of each odd-numbered year.

(1)

Each officer shall serve until April 30th of each odd-numbered year. Each officer may holdover until his or her replacement is appointed by the chairman of the board.

(2)

The presiding officer:

(A)

shall preside at all committee meetings at which he or she is in attendance;

(B)

shall call meetings in accordance with this section;

(C)

shall appoint subcommittees of the committee as necessary;

(D)

shall cause proper reports to be made to the board; and

(E)

may serve as an ex-officio member of any subcommittee of the committee.

(3)

The assistant presiding officer shall perform the duties of the presiding officer in case of the absence or disability of the presiding officer. If the office of presiding officer becomes vacant, the assistant presiding officer will serve until a successor is appointed to complete the unexpired portion of the term of the office of presiding officer.

(4)

If the office of assistant presiding officer becomes vacant, it may be filled temporarily by vote of the committee until a successor is appointed by the chairman of the board.

(5)-(6)

(No change.)

(7)

The presiding officer and assistant presiding officer serving on January 1, 1999, will continue to serve until the chairman of the board appoints their successors.

(i)

Meetings. The committee shall meet at least twice annually and as necessary to conduct committee business.

(1)-(2)

(No change.)

(3)

The committee is not a "governmental body" as defined in the Open Meeting Act. However, in order to promote public participation, each meeting of the committee shall be announced and conducted in accordance with the Open Meetings Act, Texas Government Code, Chapter 551, with the exception that the provisions allowing executive sessions shall not apply.

(4)-(7)

(No change.)

(j)

Attendance. Members shall attend committee meetings as scheduled. Members shall attend meetings of subcommittees to which the member is assigned.

(1)-(3)

(No change.)

(k)-(m)

(No change.)

(n)

Statement by members.

(1)

The board, the department, and the committee shall not be bound in any way by any statement or action on the part of any committee member except when a statement or action is in pursuit of specific instructions from the board, department, or committee.

(2)

The committee and its members may not participate in legislative activity in the name of the board, the department, or the committee except with approval through the department's legislative process. Committee members are not prohibited from representing themselves or other entities in the legislative process.

(o)

Reports to the board. The committee shall file an annual written report with the board.

(1)

The report shall list:

(A)-(D)

(No change.)

(E)

the status of any rules which were recommended by the committee to the board; and

(F)

anticipated activities of the committee for the next year.

(2)

(No change.)

(3)

The report shall cover the meetings and activities in the immediate preceding 12 months and shall be filed with the board each May. It shall be signed by the presiding officer and appropriate department staff.

(p)

Reimbursement for expenses. In accordance with the requirements set forth in the Government Code, Chapter 2110, a committee member may receive reimbursement for the member's expenses incurred for each day the member engages in official committee business if authorized by the General Appropriations Act or budget execution process.

(1)-(5)

(No change.)

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 19, 1999.

TRD-9901675

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 8, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 289. Radiation Control

Subchapter A. Control of Radiation

25 TAC §289.5

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of §289.5 concerning the Texas-Atomic Energy Commission regulatory transfer agreement without changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12117). Therefore, the section will not be republished. The section for repeal adopts by reference the document titled "Texas-AEC Regulatory Transfer Agreement."

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.5 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section no longer exist.

The document this section adopted by reference is an agreement between the State of Texas and the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The Texas Radiation Control Act does not require that it be adopted as rule. Repeal of this section does not impact the agreement.

The department published a Notice of Intention to Review for §289.5 as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 9079) on September 4, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

No comments were received on the proposal during the comment period.

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for its procedure and for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901685

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter B. Memoranda of Understanding

25 TAC §289.81

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of §289.81 concerning the memorandum of understanding (MOU) on in situ uranium mining between the Texas Department of Health and the Texas Department of Water Resources without changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12117). Therefore, the section will not be republished.

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.81 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section no longer exist.

The appropriate provisions of this MOU have been updated and incorporated in an MOU between the department and the Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission regarding radiation control functions.

The department published a Notice of Intention to Review for §289.81 as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 9079) on September 4, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

No comments were received on the proposal during the comment period.

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for its procedure and for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901684

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 289. Radiation Control

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of existing §289.112 without changes and new §289.205 concerning hearing and enforcement procedures with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12118), as a result of comments received during the 30-day comment period. The repeal of §289.112 is adopted without changes and therefore will not be republished.

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.112 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section continue to exist; however, a new section was proposed. The department published a Notice of Intention to Review for §289.112 as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 10504) on October 9, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

The repealed section adopts by reference Part 13, titled "Hearing and Enforcement Procedures" of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation (TRCR). The new section incorporates language from TRCR Part 13 that has been rewritten into Texas Register format and includes the addition and revision of several subsections of the section. The repeal and new section are part of the renumbering phase in the process of rewriting the department's radiation rules in Texas Register format. The new section reflects the renumbering.

The new section includes new language describing the process for hearings on denials of applications. Clarifying language is added concerning modifications, revocations or suspensions of licenses; certificates of registration, accreditation of mammography facilities; and industrial radiographer certification. The language for issuing, renewing, and amending licenses to process materials resulting in byproduct material or dispose of byproduct material and to process radioactive waste is revised to clarify noticing and hearing requirements. New language on severity levels for mammography violations is included to reflect current requirements, while examples of severity levels of violations are deleted. Other minor grammatical changes are made to the section for clarification.

The department is making the following changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §289.205(b)(16), the department deleted the words "suffering" and "who" and added the words "that the person has suffered" after the word "demonstrates" to make the language consistent with that of the Texas Radiation Control Act.

Change: Concerning §289.205(c)(2), the department deleted the word "requestor" as it did not provide clarification to this paragraph.

Change: Concerning §289.205(c)(2)(B), the department reworded the subparagraph for clarification and moved it to subparagraph (A), as it is part of what must be contained in a request for hearing. The subsequent subparagraph is renumbered. Change is reflected in §289.205(c)(2)(A)(v).

Change: Concerning §289.205(d)(1), the department corrected the reference to the Texas Radiation Control Act from §401.003(B) to §401.003(3)(B).

Change: Concerning §289.205(d)(2)(B)(i), the department added wording requiring a licensee to "cause notice of the proposed action to be published and," to the beginning of the clause to clarify that this is the responsibility of the licensee.

Change: Concerning §289.205(d)(3)(B), the department deleted the words, "a statement regarding the" to be grammatically correct.

Change: Concerning §289.205(e)(1)(B)(i), the department added wording requiring a licensee to "cause notice to be published and," to the beginning of the clause to clarify that this is the responsibility of the licensee.

Change: Concerning §289.205(e)(3), the department deleted "a" and added the word "the" and deleted the words "certain as" from the second sentence to provide clarification.

Change: Concerning §289.205(e)(3)(F), the department added the words "service by" after "The return of" to clarify the intent of the subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.205(e)(3)(G), the department deleted the words "return receipt requested," and added the words "addressed to the last known address," following the words "certified mail" for consistency throughout the section on requirements for certified mail.

Change: Concerning §289.205(f)(3), the department added wording requiring a licensee to "cause notice to be published and" to clarify that this is the responsibility of the licensee.

Change: Concerning §289.205(g), the department deleted the words "license, certificate of registration," after "Revocation of," and the words "or industrial radiographer certification for fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake," after "mammography facilities." The requirements concerning revocation of licenses, certificates of registration and industrial radiographer certifications are delineated in subsection (i). Subsection (g) will only address revocation of mammography facility accreditations.

Change: Concerning §289.205(g)(1), the department deleted the words, "A license, certificate of registration," from the beginning of the paragraph. The words, ", or industrial radiographer certification" after the words "mammography facility" were deleted. The requirements concerning revocation of licenses, certificates of registration and industrial radiographer certifications are delineated in subsection (i). The words, "for any of the following:" were added to refer to new subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C). The words, "on the grounds of fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake" were deleted because the intent of the words is more clearly specified in new subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C).

Change: Concerning new §289.205(g)(1)(A), (B), and (C), the department added these subparagraphs to delineate the reasons that an accreditation of mammography facility may be revoked.

Change: Concerning §289.205(g)(2), the department deleted the words, "a license, certificate of registration," "or industrial radiographer certification," "licensee/registrant" "/certified industrial radiographer," and "license, certificate of registration," from the first sentence. The words, "licensee, registrant," and ",or industrial certified radiographer" were deleted from the last sentence. The requirements concerning revocation of licenses, certificates of registration, and industrial radiographer certifications are delineated in subsection (i).

Change: Concerning §289.205(g)(3), the department added a paragraph delineating the requirements for requesting a hearing for revocation of a mammography facility accreditation.

Change: Concerning §289.205(i), the department deleted the words "accredited mammography facilities," ",and accreditation of mammography facilities," "accreditation of a mammography facility," "accredited mammography facility," and "mammography facility accreditation," throughout the subsection as this subsection addresses compliance procedures that do not pertain to accredited mammography facilities. Requirements concerning revocations for mammography facilities are addressed in subsection (g).

Change: Concerning §289.205(l)(3), the department corrected the references from subsection (i)(6) to subsection (i)(8) and subsection (i)(7) to subsection (i)(9).

Change: Concerning §289.205(l)(4), the department corrected the reference from subsection (i)(7) to subsection (i)(9).

Change: Concerning §289.205(m)(6), the department deleted the words "return receipt requested." and added the words "addressed to the last known address." following the words "certified mail" for consistency throughout the section on requirements for certified mail.

Change: Concerning §289.205(n)(3), the department changed the heading to "Hearing location." from "Place of hearing." for clarification.

The following comments were received concerning the proposed section. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Concerning §289.205(c)(5), the commenter questioned if this is to allow the agency to schedule a hearing in the expectation of potentially receiving a request from an affected person? The commenter stated that if so, this is a good change as it will allow the agency to expedite the hearing process in the event a request is received; however, the agency should not be able to request a hearing on its own initiative as it already has made its determination.

Response: The department has the authority to hold a hearing even if a hearing is not requested by the licensee. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.205(i), the commenter suggested restructuring this section for clarity as subsection (i)(8) modifies subsection (i)(2), after being procedurally referenced in subsection (i)(5). The commenter stated that it doesn't make sense unless you read the entire section and then have to interpret the cross-connections, as everything is the same rank (e.g., the things the agency can do; why they can do it; how they must do it).

Response: Section 289.205(i)(8) also modifies subsection (i)(3) and subsection (i)(7). No change was made as a result of the comment.

The commenter is a representative from International Isotopes, Inc. The commenter was generally favorable of the rule as proposed; however, the commenter had questions or specific concerns, and offered suggestions for changes to the proposal as discussed in the summary of the comments.

Subchapter C. Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation

25 TAC §289.112

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901689

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter D. General

25 TAC §289.205

The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

§289.205.Hearing and Enforcement Procedures.

(a)

Purpose. This section governs the following in accordance with the Texas Radiation Control Act (Act), the Texas Administrative Procedure Act, Texas Government Code, Chapter 2001, and the Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title (relating to the Texas Board of Health):

(1)

proceedings for the granting, denying, renewing, transferring, amending, suspending, revoking, or annulling of a:

(A)

license or certificate of registration;

(B)

accreditation of a mammography facility; or

(C)

industrial radiographer certification;

(2)

determining compliance with or granting of exemptions from agency rule, order, or condition of license or certificate of registration;

(3)

assessing administrative penalties; and

(4)

determining propriety of other agency orders.

(b)

Definitions. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(1)

Administrative penalty--A monetary penalty assessed by the agency in accordance with the Act, §401.384, to emphasize the need for lasting remedial action and to deter future violations.

(2)

Applicant--A person seeking a license, certificate of registration, accreditation of mammography facility, or industrial radiographer certification, issued under the provisions of the Act and the requirements in this chapter.

(3)

Board--The Texas Board of Health.

(4)

Certified industrial radiographer--An individual who meets the definition of radiographer as stated in §289.255(c) of this title (relating to Radiation Safety Requirements and Licensing and Registration Procedures for Industrial Radiography).

(5)

Commissioner--The Texas commissioner of health.

(6)

Contested case--A proceeding in which the agency determines the legal rights, duties, or privileges of a party after an opportunity for adjudicative hearing.

(7)

Director--The director of the radiation control program under the agency's jurisdiction.

(8)

Enforcement conference--A meeting held by the agency with management of a licensee, registrant, or a certified industrial radiographer to discuss the following:

(A)

safety, safeguards, or environmental problems;

(B)

compliance with regulatory, license condition, or registration condition requirements;

(C)

proposed corrective measures including, but not limited to, schedules for implementation; and

(D)

enforcement options available to the agency.

(9)

Hearing--A proceeding to examine an application or other matter before the agency in order to adjudicate rights, duties, or privileges.

(10)

Hearing examiner--An attorney selected by the agency to conduct hearings.

(11)

Interested person--A person who participates in a hearing concerning a contested case but who is not admitted as a party by the hearing examiner.

(12)

Major amendment--An amendment to a license issued in accordance with the requirements of §289.260 of this title (relating to Licensing of Uranium Recovery and Byproduct Material Disposal Facilities) that:

(A)

reflects a transfer of ownership of the licensed facility;

(B)

authorizes enlargement of the licensed area beyond the boundaries of the existing license;

(C)

authorizes a change of the method specified in the license for disposal of byproduct material as defined in the Act, §401.003(3)(B); or

(D)

grants an exemption from any provision of §289.260 of this title.

(13)

Notice of violation--A written statement of one or more alleged infringements of a legally binding requirement. The notice normally requires the licensee, registrant, certified mammography system, or certified industrial radiographer to provide a written statement describing the following:

(A)

corrective steps taken by the licensee, registrant, certified mammography system, or certified industrial radiographer, and the results achieved;

(B)

corrective steps to be taken to prevent recurrence; and

(C)

the projected date for achieving full compliance. The agency may require responses to notices of violation to be under oath.

(14)

Order--A specific directive contained in a legal document issued by the agency.

(15)

Party--A person designated as such by the hearing examiner. A party may consist of the following:

(A)

the agency;

(B)

an applicant, licensee, registrant, accredited mammography facility, or certified industrial radiographer; and

(C)

any person affected.

(16)

Person affected--A person who demonstrates that the person has suffered or will suffer actual injury or economic damage and, if the person is not a local government, is:

(A)

a resident of a county, or a county adjacent to the county, in which radioactive material is or will be located; or

(B)

doing business or has a legal interest in land in the county or adjacent county.

(17)

Preliminary report--A document prepared by the agency containing the following:

(A)

a statement of facts on which the agency bases the conclusion that a violation has occurred;

(B)

recommendations that an administrative penalty be imposed on the person charged;

(C)

recommendations for the amount of that proposed penalty; and

(D)

a statement that the person charged has a right to a hearing on the occurrence of the violation, the amount of the penalty, or both.

(18)

Radiation and Perpetual Care Fund--A fund established in the state treasury for the purposes described in the Act, §401.305.

(19)

Requestor--A person claiming party status as a person affected.

(20)

Severity level--A classification of violations based on relative seriousness of each violation and the significance of the effect of the violation on the occupational or public health or safety or the environment.

(21)

Violation--An infringement of any rule, license or registration condition, order of the agency, or any provision of the Act.

(c)

Procedures for licensing actions under the Act, §401.054.

(1)

Except as provided in subsections (d)-(f) of this section, when the agency grants, renews, denies, transfers, or amends any specific license for the possession of radioactive materials, or grants exemptions from rules, orders, or licenses in accordance with the Act, the agency shall, no later than 30 days following the end of the month in which the action was taken, submit notice of the action for publication in the Texas Register . The action taken will remain in full force and effect unless and until modified by subsequent action of the agency.

(2)

Any person who considers himself/herself a person affected by an agency action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection or any applicant/licensee may request a hearing by writing the director within 30 days after the notice is published in the Texas Register .

(A)

The request for a hearing must contain the following:

(i)

name and address of the person/applicant/licensee who considers himself/herself affected by agency action;

(ii)

identification of the subject license;

(iii)

reasons why the person/applicant/licensee considers himself/herself affected;

(iv)

relief sought; and

(v)

name and address of the attorney if the applicant/licensee or requestor is represented by an attorney.

(B)

Failure to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days could result in denial of party status and render the agency action final.

(3)

Either the applicant/licensee or the agency may contest the standing of a requestor as a person affected by motion filed with the hearing examiner no later than ten days prior to the hearing. The requestor has the burden of proof in a hearing to determine whether the requestor is a person affected.

(4)

The hearing examiner may designate parties at the commencement of the hearing on the merits.

(5)

A hearing may be scheduled by the agency regardless of whether a request for a hearing has been received.

(d)

Special procedures for issuing, renewing, or amending byproduct material licenses in accordance with §289.260 of this title.

(1)

When the agency determines that the issuance or renewal, in accordance with §289.260 of this title, of a license to process materials resulting in byproduct material or to dispose of byproduct materials as defined in the Act, §401.003(3)(B), will have a significant impact on the human environment, the agency shall prepare or secure a written analysis of the impact and make it available to the public for written comment at least 30 days before a public hearing, if any, on the issuance or renewal of the license.

(2)

At least 30 days prior to the issuance of a new license, renewal, or major amendment, a notice of such action will be published in the following:

(A)

Texas Register ; and

(B)

a newspaper published in each county in which the proposed facility is located or, in which the proposed facility will be located. The applicant/licensee shall do the following:

(i)

cause notice of the proposed action to be published and pay for the publication of the newspaper notice(s); and

(ii)

file proof of publication required in this subparagraph with the agency within 30 days of publication. An affidavit by the publisher accompanied by a printed copy of the notice as published shall be conclusive evidence of publication.

(3)

The notice referenced in paragraph (2) of this subsection shall contain at least the following:

(A)

statement identifying the location of the proposed facility and a summary of the proposed actions;

(B)

availability of an environmental analysis for the proposed facility; and

(C)

offer of an opportunity for a hearing to any person affected.

(4)

When a hearing is requested in writing within 30 days after publication of the notice described in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the procedures described in subsection (c)(3) and (4) of this section and Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title apply. Failure to submit a written request for a hearing in the form specified by subsection (c)(2) of this section within 30 days may result in no hearing being held and the proposed agency action being taken.

(5)

A hearing may be scheduled by the agency regardless of whether a request for a hearing has been received.

(e)

Special procedures for issuing or renewing licenses to process or store radioactive waste from other persons in accordance with §289.254 of this title (relating to Licensing of Radioactive Waste Processing and Storage Facilities).

(1)

At least 30 days prior to issuance or renewal of a license to process or store radioactive waste from other persons, in accordance with §289.254 of this title, a notice of such action will be published in the following:

(A)

Texas Register ; and

(B)

a newspaper published in each county in which the proposed facility is located or, in which the proposed facility will be located. The applicant/licensee shall do the following:

(i)

cause notice to be published and pay for the publication of the newspaper notice(s); and

(ii)

file proof of publication of the notice required in paragraph (1)(B) of this subsection with the agency within 30 days of publication. An affidavit by the publisher accompanied by a printed copy of the notice as published shall be conclusive evidence of publication.

(2)

The notice specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection shall contain at least the following:

(A)

the agency's intent to issue or renew a license in accordance with §289.254 of this title;

(B)

location of the proposed facility;

(C)

in the case of a Category III storage or processing facility, the availability of an environmental analysis for each proposed activity the agency determines has a significant impact on the human environment; and

(D)

opportunity for a person affected to request a hearing.

(3)

A hearing will be held only when requested, unless scheduled by the agency on its own motion. When a hearing is requested in writing by the date stated in the notice described in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the procedures described in subsection (c)(3) and (4) of this section and the Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title apply. Failure to submit a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in subsection (c)(2) of this section on or before the stated date could result in denial of party status and in issuance or renewal of the license by the commissioner.

(A)

Notice of the hearing shall be published in the following:

(i)

Texas Register ; and

(ii)

a newspaper published in each county in which the proposed facility is located or, in which the proposed facility will be located.

(B)

Notice of the hearing shall contain the subject, time, date, and location of the hearing.

(C)

The applicant/licensee shall cause notice to be published and pay for the publication of the newspaper notice(s).

(D)

The applicant/licensee shall file proof of publication of the notice required in subparagraph (A)(ii) of this paragraph with the agency at least ten days before the hearing. An affidavit by the publisher accompanied by a printed copy of the notice as published shall be conclusive evidence of publication.

(E)

If no newspaper is published in the county or counties in which the proposed facility is to be located, a written copy of the notice of hearing shall be posted at the courthouse door and five other public places in the immediate locality to be affected for at least 30 days prior to the beginning of the hearing.

(F)

The return of service by the sheriff or constable, or the affidavit of any credible person made on a written copy of the notice so posted showing the fact of the posting and filed with the agency at least ten days prior to the hearing date shall be conclusive evidence of posting.

(G)

The applicant/licensee shall give written notice of the hearing by certified mail, addressed to the last known address, to persons shown on the current county tax records as owning property adjacent to the proposed site. The written notice shall contain the same information described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph.

(i)

The applicant/licensee shall furnish the agency with a list of names and addresses of the adjacent property owners no later than ten days before the hearing.

(ii)

The list of names and addresses will be deemed accurate and valid if obtained from the current county tax records of the county where the adjacent property is located as of the mailing date of the notice of hearing. The information shall be certified by an appropriate county official.

(iii)

The applicant/licensee shall certify to the mailing of the notice of hearing by certified mail, and proof of mailing to the proper address or the receipt shall be accepted at the hearing as conclusive evidence of the fact of the mailing.

(H)

Failure to comply with the provisions of subparagraphs (A)(ii), (E), and (G) of this paragraph may result in denial of the license.

(f)

Special procedures for amending waste licenses in accordance with §289.254 of this title.

(1)

If the agency amends a license to process or store radioactive waste, in accordance with §289.254 of this title, the amendment will take effect immediately.

(2)

Notice of amendment shall be published one time in the following:

(A)

Texas Register ;

(B)

a newspaper of general circulation in the county or counties in which the licensed activity is located. The licensee shall file with the agency, within 30 days of publication, proof of publication of the notice.

(3)

The licensee shall cause notice to be published and pay for publication of the newspaper notice(s).

(4)

An affidavit from the publisher accompanied by a printed copy of the notice as published shall be conclusive evidence of publication.

(5)

The notice shall contain the following:

(A)

identity of the licensee and the license amended;

(B)

a concise statement of the substance of the amendment; and

(C)

opportunity for a person affected to request a hearing.

(6)

The agency shall notify any person who has submitted an advance, written request to be notified of any proposed amendment to the license. Proof of mailing to the proper address shall be conclusive evidence of the agency's compliance.

(7)

A person who considers himself/herself a person affected may request the agency to hold a hearing by writing the director, in the manner provided by subsection (c)(2) of this section, no later than 30 days after the notice is published. Failure to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days could result in denial of party status and render the agency action final.

(8)

Upon receipt of a request for hearing, the agency or the licensee may follow the procedures set out in subsection (c)(3) and (4) of this section to contest standing.

(9)

Notice of a hearing on the merits shall be given in accordance with appropriate provisions of subsection (e)(3) of this section.

(g)

Revocation of accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

An accreditation of mammography facility may be revoked for any of the following:

(A)

any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required under provision of the Act;

(B)

conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, inspection, or other means that would warrant the agency to refuse to grant an accreditation of mammography facility on an original application; or

(C)

failure to observe any of the terms and conditions of the Act, this chapter, or order of the agency.

(2)

Before the agency revokes an accreditation of mammography facility, the agency shall give notice by personal service or by certified mail, addressed to the last known address, of the facts or conduct alleged to warrant the revocation by complaint, and order the accredited mammography facility to show cause why the mammography facility accreditation should not be revoked. The accredited mammography facility shall be given an opportunity to request a hearing on the matter no later than 30 days after receipt of the notice.

(3)

Any accredited mammography facility against whom the agency contemplates an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection may request a hearing by writing the director within 30 days of service or date of mailing.

(A)

The written request for a hearing must contain the following:

(i)

statement requesting a hearing;

(ii)

name, address, and identification number of the accredited mammography facility against whom the action is being taken.

(B)

Failure to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days will render the agency action final.

(h)

Denial of an application for a license, certificate of registration, accreditation of a mammography facility, or industrial radiographer certification.

(1)

When the agency contemplates denial of an application for a license, certificate of registration, accreditation of a mammography facility, or industrial radiographer certification, the licensee, registrant, mammography facility seeking accreditation, or certified industrial radiographer shall be afforded the opportunity for a hearing. Notice of the denial shall be delivered by personal service or certified mail, addressed to the last known address, to the licensee, registrant, mammography facility seeking accreditation, or certified industrial radiographer.

(2)

Any applicant, licensee, registrant, mammography facility seeking accreditation, or certified industrial radiographer against whom the agency contemplates an action described in paragraph (1) of this subsection may request a hearing by writing the director within 30 days of service or date of mailing.

(A)

The written request for a hearing must contain the following:

(i)

statement requesting a hearing; and

(ii)

name and address of the applicant, licensee, registrant, mammography facility seeking accreditation, or certified industrial radiographer;

(B)

Failure to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days will render the agency action final.

(i)

Compliance procedures for licensees, registrants, and certified industrial radiographers.

(1)

A licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer who commits a violation(s) will be issued a notice of violation.

(2)

The terms and conditions of all licenses and certificates of registration shall be subject to amendment or modification. A license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification may be modified, suspended, or revoked by reason of amendments to the Act, or for violation of the Act, the requirements of this chapter, a condition of the license, certificate of registration, or an order of the agency.

(3)

Any license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification may be modified, suspended, or revoked in whole or in part, for any of the following:

(A)

any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required in accordance with provisions of the Act;

(B)

conditions revealed by such application or statement of fact or any report, record, or inspection, or other means that would warrant the agency to refuse to grant a license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification on an original application; or

(C)

violation of, or failure to observe applicable terms and conditions of the Act, this chapter, or of the license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification or order of the agency.

(4)

If another state or federal entity takes an action such as modification, revocation, or suspension of the license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification, the agency may take a similar action against the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer.

(5)

When the agency determines that the action provided for in paragraph (8) of this subsection or subsection (j) of this section is not to be taken immediately, the agency may offer the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer an opportunity to attend an enforcement conference to discuss the following with the agency:

(A)

methods and schedules for correcting the violation(s); or

(B)

methods and schedules for showing compliance with applicable provisions of the Act, the rules, license or registration conditions, or any orders of the agency.

(6)

Notice of any enforcement conference shall be delivered by personal service, or certified mail, addressed to the last known address. An enforcement conference is not a prerequisite for the action to be taken under paragraph (8) of this subsection or subsection (j) of this section.

(7)

Except in cases in which the public health, interest, or safety requires otherwise, no license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification shall be modified, suspended, or revoked unless, prior to the institution of proceedings therefore, facts or conduct that may warrant such action shall have been called to the attention of the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer in writing, and the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer shall have been accorded an opportunity to demonstrate compliance with all lawful requirements.

(8)

When the agency contemplates modification, suspension, or revocation of the license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification, the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer shall be afforded the opportunity for a hearing. Notice of the contemplated action, along with a complaint, shall be given to the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer by personal service or certified mail, addressed to the last known address.

(9)

Any applicant, licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer against whom the agency contemplates an action described in paragraph (8) of this subsection may request a hearing by writing the director within 30 days of service or date of mailing.

(A)

The written request for a hearing must contain the following:

(i)

statement requesting a hearing;

(ii)

name, address, and identification number of the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer against whom the action is being taken.

(B)

Failure to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days will render the agency action final.

(j)

Assessment of Administrative Penalties.

(1)

When the agency determines that monetary penalties are appropriate, proposals for assessment of and hearings on administrative penalties shall be made in accordance with the Act, §401.384, and applicable sections of the Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title.

(2)

Assessment of administrative penalties shall be based on the following criteria:

(A)

the seriousness of the violation(s);

(B)

previous compliance history;

(C)

the amount necessary to deter future violations;

(D)

efforts to correct the violation; and

(E)

any other mitigating or enhancing factors.

(3)

Application of administrative penalties. The agency may impose differing levels of penalties for different severity level violations and different classes of users as follows.

(A)

Administrative penalties may be imposed for severity level I and II violations. Administrative penalties will be considered for severity level III, IV, and V violations when they are combined with those of higher severity level(s) or for repeated violations that could have been prevented by corrective action and for which the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer did not take effective corrective action.

(B)

The following Tables IA and IB show the base administrative penalties.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.205(j)(3)(B)

(C)

Adjustments to the severity levels and percentages in Table IB may be made for the presence or absence of the following factors:

(i)

prompt identification and reporting;

(ii)

corrective action to prevent recurrence;

(iii)

compliance history;

(iv)

prior notice of similar event;

(v)

multiple occurrences; and

(vi)

negligence that resulted in or increased adverse effects.

(D)

The penalty may be in an amount not to exceed $10,000 a day for a person who violates the Act or a rule, order, license or registration issued under the Act. Each day a violation continues may be considered a separate violation for purposes of penalty assessment.

(4)

The Office of General Counsel may conduct settlement negotiations.

(k)

Severity levels of violations for licensees, registrants, or certified industrial radiographers.

(1)

Violations for licensees, registrants, or certified industrial radiographers shall be categorized by one of the following severity levels.

(A)

Severity level I are violations that are most significant and may have a significant negative impact on occupational and/or public health and safety or on the environment.

(B)

Severity level II are violations that are very significant and may have a negative impact on occupational and/or public health and safety or on the environment.

(C)

Severity level III are violations that are significant and which, if not corrected, could threaten occupational and/or public health and safety or the environment.

(D)

Severity level IV are violations that are of more than minor significance, but if left uncorrected, could lead to more serious circumstances.

(E)

Severity level V are violations that are of minor safety or environmental significance.

(2)

Additional violations for mammography registrants. Violations for mammography registrants shall be categorized by one of the following severity levels.

(A)

Severity level I violations indicate a serious noncompliance that may adversely affect image quality or that may compromise the quality of mammography services.

(B)

Severity level II violations indicate key quality system requirements are being met, but there is a failure to meet one or more quality standards that may lead to a compromise of the quality of mammography services.

(C)

Severity level III violations indicate that the quality system requirements are being met, but minor corrective actions are required for compliance with the quality standards.

(D)

Severity level IV violations indicate that the quality system requirements and standards are being met, but minor corrective actions are required for compliance.

(3)

Criteria to elevate or reduce severity levels.

(A)

Violations may be elevated to a higher severity level for the following reasons:

(i)

more than one violation resulted from the same underlying cause;

(ii)

a violation contributed to or was the consequence of the underlying cause, such as a management breakdown or breakdown in the control of licensed or registered activities;

(iii)

a violation occurred multiple times between inspections;

(iv)

a violation was willful. This means the violation was the result of careless regard for requirements, deception, or other indications of willfulness by the licensee/registrant or employees of the licensee/registrant, or certified industrial radiographer; or

(v)

compliance history.

(B)

Violations may be reduced to a lower level for the following reasons:

(i)

the licensee/registrant identified and corrected the violation prior to the agency inspection; or

(ii)

the licensee/registrant's actions corrected the violation and prevented recurrence.

(4)

Examples of severity levels. Examples of severity levels are available upon request to the agency.

(l)

Impoundment of sources of radiation.

(1)

In the event of an emergency, the agency shall have the authority to impound or order the impounding of sources of radiation possessed by any person not equipped to observe or failing to observe the provisions of the Act, or any rules, license or registration conditions, or orders issued by the agency. The agency shall submit notice of the action to be published in the Texas Register no later than 30 days following the end of the month in which the action was taken.

(2)

At the agency's discretion, the impounded sources of radiation may be disposed of by:

(A)

returning the source of radiation to a properly licensed or registered owner, upon proof of ownership, who did not cause the emergency;

(B)

releasing the source of radiation as evidence to police or courts;

(C)

returning the source of registration to a licensee or registrant after the emergency is over and settlement of any compliance action; or

(D)

sale, destruction or other disposition within the agency's discretion.

(3)

If agency action is necessary to protect the public health and safety, no prior notice need be given the owner or possessor. If agency action is not necessary to protect the public health and safety, the agency will give written notice to the owner and/or the possessor of the impounded source of radiation of the intention to dispose of the source of radiation. Notice shall be the same as provided in subsection (i)(8) of this section. The owner or possessor shall have 30 days from the date of personal service or mailing to request a hearing under the Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title, and in accordance with subsection (i)(9) of this section, concerning the intention of the agency. If no hearing is requested within that period of time, the agency may take the contemplated action, and such action is final.

(4)

Upon agency disposition of a source of radiation, the agency may notify the owner and/or possessor of any expense the agency may have incurred during the impoundment and/or disposition and request reimbursement. If the amount is not paid within 60 days from the date of notice, the agency may request the Attorney General to file suit against the owner/possessor for the amount requested. If the owner/possessor desires to contest the amount of such charge, the owner/possessor may request a hearing under the Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title and in accordance with subsection (i)(9) of this section.

(5)

If the agency determines from the facts available to the agency that an impounded source of radiation is abandoned, with no reasonable evidence showing its owner or possessor, the agency may make such disposition of the source of radiation as it sees fit.

(m)

Emergency orders for licenses, certificates of registration, or certified industrial radiographers.

(1)

When an emergency exists requiring immediate action to protect the public health or safety or the environment, the agency may, without notice or hearing, issue an order citing the existence of such emergency and require that certain actions be taken as it shall direct to meet the emergency. The agency shall, no later than 30 days following the end of the month in which the action was taken, submit notice of the action for publication in the Texas Register . The action taken will remain in full force and effect unless and until modified by subsequent action of the agency. These emergency orders shall apply to licenses, certificates of registration, or certified industrial radiographers.

(2)

In addition to the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the agency shall issue an order directing any action and corrective measure needed to remedy or neutralize the following emergency situations:

(A)

when the agency determines that byproduct material as defined in the Act, §401.003(3)(B), or the operation generating the byproduct material, or that radioactive waste threatens the public health or safety or the environment; and

(B)

if the licensee managing the byproduct material, or the operation generating the byproduct material or the radioactive waste, is unable to correct or neutralize the threat.

(3)

An emergency order takes effect immediately upon service.

(4)

Any person receiving an emergency order shall comply immediately.

(5)

The agency shall use any security provided by a licensee under the Act to pay toward the costs of such actions and corrective measures taken. If the cost of actions and corrective measures require more funds than the security has provided, the agency shall request the Attorney General to seek reimbursement from the licensee or person causing the threat.

(A)

The agency may send a copy of its order specified in this subsection to the Comptroller of Public Accounts together with necessary documents authorizing the Comptroller of Public Accounts to enforce security supplied by the licensee, convert the necessary amount of security into cash, and disburse from this security in the fund the amount necessary to pay costs of the agency actions and corrective measures. The agency shall direct the comptroller as to the amounts and recipients of the funds.

(B)

The agency may request the Attorney General to file suit for reimbursement if the agency uses security from the Radiation and Perpetual Care Fund to pay for actions or corrective measures to remedy spills or contamination by radioactive material resulting from a violation of the Act or a rule, license, or order of the agency.

(6)

The licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer shall be afforded the opportunity for a hearing on an emergency order. Notice of the action, along with a complaint, shall be given to the licensee, registrant, or certified industrial radiographer by personal service or certified mail, addressed to the last known address. A hearing shall be held on an emergency order if the person receiving the order makes a written application to the agency for a hearing within 30 days of the order date.

(A)

The hearing shall be held not less than 10 days nor more than 20 days after receipt of the written application for hearing.

(B)

At the conclusion of the hearing and after the proposal for decision is made as provided in the Texas Administrative Procedure Act, Texas Government Code, Chapter 2001, the commissioner shall take one of the following actions:

(i)

determine that no further action is warranted;

(ii)

amend the license or certificate of registration;

(iii)

revoke or suspend the license, certificate of registration, or industrial radiographer certification;

(iv)

rescind the emergency order; or

(v)

issue such other order as is appropriate.

(C)

The application and hearing shall not delay compliance with the emergency order.

(n)

Miscellaneous provisions.

(1)

Computation of time. A time period established by the requirements of this chapter shall begin on the first day after the event that invokes the time period. When the last day of the period falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or state or federal holiday, the period shall end on the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or state or federal holiday. The time period shall expire at 5:00 p.m. of the last day of the computed period.

(2)

Interested person.

(A)

An interested person may:

(i)

make sworn or unsworn statements;

(ii)

attend a hearing and may present evidence after the presentation of evidence by the parties; or

(iii)

be represented by an attorney.

(B)

An interested person may not:

(i)

cross-examine the witnesses of the parties;

(ii)

object to evidence presented by the parties; or

(iii)

appeal a decision rendered by the agency.

(C)

An interested person is not responsible for sharing the costs of the transcription of the hearing, but may purchase a transcript.

(D)

The parties may cross-examine witnesses presented by an interested person.

(E)

At the discretion of the hearing examiner an interested person may make an unsworn statement. Such statement shall not be made a part of the record.

(3)

Hearing location. Hearings will be held at the agency offices in Austin unless the hearing examiner specifies another location.

(4)

Prepared testimony. The following shall apply to written testimony of a witness:

(A)

the testimony of a witness may be reduced to writing and offered into evidence as an exhibit, provided:

(i)

the witness is present and has been sworn;

(ii)

the witness identifies and adopts the written testimony as his/her own; and

(iii)

all parties receive a copy of the testimony at least ten days before its submission at the hearing.

(B)

written testimony shall be subject to objection and may be stricken by the hearing examiner. The witness shall be subject to cross-examination.

(5)

Prior testimony. Testimony and evidence presented in the hearing to determine standing have the same weight at the hearing on the merits if a tape recording or written transcript of the standing hearing is available.

(6)

Non-party witness and mileage fees.

(A)

A witness or deponent who is not a party (or an employee, agent, or representative of a party) and who is subpoenaed or otherwise compelled to attend an agency hearing or a proceeding to give a deposition, or to produce books, records, papers, accounts, documents, or other objects necessary and proper for the purposes of the hearing or proceeding may receive reimbursement for transportation and other costs at rates established by the current Appropriations Act for state employees.

(B)

The person requesting the attendance of the witness or deponent must deposit with the agency the funds estimated by the hearing examiner to accrue in accordance with subparagraph (A) of this paragraph when filing a motion for the issuance of a subpoena or a commission to take a deposition.

(7)

Service. A return of service by the person who performed personal service, postal return receipt, or proof of mailing to the last known address shall be conclusive evidence of service.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901690

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 289. Radiation Control

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of existing §289.115 without changes and new §289.255 concerning radiation safety requirements and licensing and registration procedures for industrial radiography with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12126), as a result of comments received during the 30-day comment period. The repeal of §289.115 is adopted without changes and therefore will not be republished.

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.115 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section continue to exist; however, a new section was proposed. The department published a Notice of Intention to Review for §289.115 as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 9079) on September 4, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

The repealed section adopts by reference Part 31, titled "Radiation Safety Requirements and Licensing and Registration Procedures For Industrial Radiography" of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation. The new section incorporates language from Part 31 that has been rewritten into Texas Register format and includes addition and revision of several subsections of the section. The repeal and new section are part of the renumbering phase in the process of rewriting the department's radiation rules in the Texas Register format. The new section reflects the renumbering.

The revision incorporates industrial radiography training requirements that are items of compatibility with the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and as an agreement state, Texas must adopt them. Additional options for personnel monitoring are added. The fee for industrial radiographer certification is raised to reflect a more accurate cost recovery by the department. References to other sections of this chapter are clarified to reflect the Texas Register format. Other minor grammatical changes are made to the section for clarification.

The department is making the following changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(c)(15), the department deleted this sentence and formulated two new sentences to more clearly state the intent of the definition.

Change: Concerning §289.255(c)(19), the department replaced the word "control" with "drive" for consistency with the term "drive cable" throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(d)(1), the department deleted the reference "and (7)(A)" because this reference was redundant as §289.255(b)(3) already required registration.

Change: Concerning §289.255(d)(4), in the first sentence, the department replaced the word "subsection" with "section" to state the correct reference intended by this paragraph and added the references "(b)(3) and (5), (j)" before the reference "(m)(1)(A)" to ensure that all the necessary exemptions were addressed. The department also deleted the reference "and (7)(A)" at the end of the first sentence since it was unnecessary and deleted the second sentence since it restated what was already included in §289.255(m)(1)(A).

Change: Concerning §289.255(e), the department restructured the second sentence by deleting the phrase "in accordance with subsection (w)(1) of this section" at the end of the sentence and added the phrase "in accordance with subsection (w)(1) of this section," after the word "records" for clarification of the intent of the subsection.

Change: Concerning §289.255(f)(1), the department changed the "§289.202(f)" reference to "§289.202(p)(1) and (2)" because "§289.202(f)" was an incorrect reference.

Change: Concerning §289.255(h)(1)(E), the department deleted this subparagraph to avoid duplication of records by licensees and registrants as they are already required to maintain these records in accordance with §289.255(j)(2) and (6).

Change: Concerning §289.255(h)(2), the department changed the form number from "255-2" to "255-U" to more accurately reflect the form numbering system used throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(i)(1), the department deleted the words "of use" and replaced them with "before using equipment," to clarify the intent of the paragraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(i)(2)(A), in the last sentence, the department added the words "inspection and maintenance" after the word "This" to specify which program the subparagraph addresses.

Change: Concerning §289.255(k)(2)(B), the department deleted the word "control" before the word "drive" for consistency with the term "drive cable" throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(1), the department replaced the words "a current" with "the original or a copy of an" and added to the end of the sentence the phrase "or a certification ID card" to allow for various options of proof of radiographer trainee status.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(2)(A)(ii)(I), the department replaced the word "radiographer" before the words "trainee status card" with "legible" to emphasize that the document must be capable of being read.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(2)(A)(ii)(III), the department replaced the word "x rays" with "x-ray machines" to more clearly state the intent of the subclause.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(2)(A)(ii)(V), the department changed the form number from "255-OOS" to "255-OS" to more accurately reflect the form numbering system used throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(2)(A)(iv), the department changed the "(p)(1)" reference to "(p)(2)" because "(p)(1)" was an incorrect reference.

Change: Concerning new §289.255(m)(3)(B), the department added this subparagraph that specifically lists the responsibilities of the radiographer trainer regarding the supervision of radiographer trainees to clarify the intent of this subsection. As a result of adding this subparagraph, the proposed §289.255(m)(3) text was renumbered to allow for the addition of the new subparagraph and comply with the Texas Register format. Change is reflected in renumbered (m)(3)(A)-(B).

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(4), the department added the word "industrial" before "radiography" for consistency throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(4)(B)(ii), the department deleted the reference "(2)(A)(ii) and (iii)", added "(2)(A)(iii)" after the phrase "paragraph (1)(A) and", and added the phrase "subsection (n)(1)(B) of this section" to state the correct references intended by this clause.

Change: Concerning §289.255(m)(4)(C)(xv), the department changed the references "(u)(4)(A)-(D)" to "(u)(4)(A)-(C)" and "(v)(7)(A)-(D)" to "(v)(7)(A)-(C)" to state the correct references intended by this clause.

Change: Concerning §289.255(o)(1)(C), the department added the words "for examination" after the word "application" to specify the application to be submitted as intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(o)(2)(D), the department deleted the first sentence because it was redundant.

Change: Concerning §289.255(o)(2)(F), the department replaced the word "have" with "present" to more clearly state the intent of this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(p)(1), the department changed the form number from "255-OOS" to "255-OS" to more accurately reflect the form numbering system used throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(p)(1)(B), the department added the words "for radiographer certification" after the word "application" to specify the application to be submitted as intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2), the department deleted the words "When performing" before the word "industrial" and replaced this phrase with the word "During" so the sentence reads better.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(A)(i), the department deleted this clause and replaced it with "an individual monitoring device that meets the requirements of §289.202(p)(3) of this title" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(G), in the first sentence, the department replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(H), the department replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "individual monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(I), in the first sentence, the department replaced the words "Film badges, TLDs, or OSLs" with "Individual monitoring devices" and in the second and third sentences replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "individual monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(J), in the first sentence, the department replaced the phrase "a film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "an individual monitoring device" and throughout this subparagraph, replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "individual monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(4)(A), at the end of the sentence, the department deleted the phrase "prior to use at the start of each work shift" because it was redundant in this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(4)(D), at the end of the sentence, the department deleted the phrase "for correct response to radiation" because it was redundant in this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(q)(6)(B), the department deleted this subparagraph and replaced it with "Records of the individual monitoring device monitoring results received from the individual monitoring device processor." so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(t)(1)(B), the department deleted this subparagraph and replaced it with "an individual monitoring device that meets the requirements of §289.202(p)(3) of this title for each worker" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(t)(3), the department deleted the word "valid" before the words "trainee status card" to more clearly state the intent of the paragraph and also changed the "(m)(1)(A)" reference to "(m)(1)" to state the correct reference intended by this paragraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(u)(4)(C), the department replaced the "(n)" reference with "(n)(1)" to state the correct reference intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(u)(5), the department deleted the words "and survey records" after the word "surveys" since the records requirements are in another subsection.

Change: Concerning §289.255(u)(5)(C), at the end of the second sentence, the department replaced the "§289.202(n)(3)" reference with "§289.202(n)(1)(B) and (C)" to state the correct reference intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(u)(6), the department deleted the phrase "and exemptions" after the word "requirements" since the exemptions are addressed in another subsection.

Change: Concerning §289.255(v)(5)(C)(ii), the department added the phrase ", the NRC," after the word "agency" to accurately state that the NRC is also an authorizing entity as intended by this clause.

Change: Concerning §289.255(v)(7)(C), the department replaced the "(n)" reference with "(n)(1)" to state the correct reference intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(v)(8), the department deleted the words "and survey records" after the word "surveys" since the records requirements are in another subsection.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(2), in the second sentence, the department added the words "and registrant" after the word "licensee" to accurately state who is responsible for maintaining the records of the calibrations.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(3)(A), the department added the words "and registrant" after the word "licensee" to accurately state who is responsible for maintaining the records of the quarterly inventories. The department also deleted the phrase "sealed sources and of" after the word "inventory" and replaced it with "sources of radiation, including" to specify the correct items to be inventoried as intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(3)(B), the department deleted the word "sealed" before the word "source" to correctly state the types of radiation to be included in the record as intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(4)(A), the department added the words "and registrant" after the word "licensee" to accurately state who is responsible for maintaining the records intended by this subparagraph.

Change: Concerning new §289.255(w)(4)(A)(vi), the department added this clause to address all the necessary equipment intended by this clause.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(5), in the first sentence, the department replaced the word "checks" with the word "tests" for consistency in this paragraph. In the second sentence, the department added the words "and registrant" after the word "licensee" to accurately state who is responsible for maintaining the records intended by this subparagraph and also replaced the phrase "until disposal is authorized by the agency" with "for two years from the date of the test" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(7)(B), the department replaced the "(n)" reference with "(n)(1)" to state the correct reference as intended by this subparagraph. At the end of the sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until disposal is authorized by the agency" with "for five years after the record is made" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(8)(A), in the first sentence, the department added the word "pocket" after the word "Direct-reading" and added the phrase "or electronic personal dosimeter" before the word "readings" to reflect consistency of context used in equivalent subsections throughout the section. In the second sentence, the department replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "individual monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring. At the end of the second sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until the agency authorizes disposal" with "for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency" for consistency throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(8)(C), the department replaced the words "film badge, TLD, or OSL" with "individual monitoring device" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(8)(D), the department replaced the words "film badges, TLDs, or OSLs" with "individual monitoring devices" so as not to limit licensees and registrants to current available individual monitoring devices but to allow for new technologies in personnel monitoring.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(12), in the end of the second sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until the agency authorizes disposal" with "for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency" for consistency throughout the section.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(13), the department deleted the phrase "and exemptions" after the word "requirements" since the exemptions are addressed in another subsection and not in this paragraph.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(13)(A), at the end of the sentence, the department replaced the phrase "two years after the evaluation" with the phrase "five years from the date of the evaluation" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(13)(B), at the end of the sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until disposal is authorized by the agency" with the phrase "for five years from the date of the test" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(13)(C), at the end of the sentence, the department replaced the phrase "two years after the evaluation" with the phrase "five years from the date of the evaluation" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(14)(B), at the end of the sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until disposal is authorized by the agency" with the phrase "for two years from the date of the test" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning §289.255(w)(15), the department added a new sentence "Records of utilization logs." to comply with the Texas Register format that requires a lead-in sentence if all other paragraphs within the same subsection contain this. At the end of the proposed first sentence, the department replaced the phrase "until disposal is authorized by the agency" with the phrase "for two years from the date the utilization log is made" to more accurately reflect the intended record retention period.

Change: Concerning proposed §289.255(y)(1)(B)(iii), the department replaced the word "personnel" with "individual" and replaced the word "equipment" with "devices" for consistency throughout the section.

Change: Concerning proposed §289.255(y)(3), the department deleted this paragraph and replaced it with a new revised paragraph to reflect consistency of terminology used throughout the section, to include for: subsection (j), changed the word "Installations" to "Installation Tests;" subsection (m)(1)(A) and (2)(A) and (n), changed the reference "(n)" to "(n)(1);" and subsection (q), changed the name of the record from "Personnel Monitoring" to "Individual Monitoring Devices" and to the record titled "Direct-Reading Dosimeter Readings" added the words "Pocket or Electronic Personal" before the word "Dosimeter." The department also changed the "Record Keeping Time Interval" accordingly to reflect the specific subsection context record retention period, to include for: subsection (h), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "2 years;" subsection (j), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "2 years;" subsection (m)(1)(A) and (2)(A) and (n), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "5 years;" subsection (u)(6)(B), changed from "2 years" to "5 years;" subsection (u)(6)(C)(i), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "5 years;" subsection (u)(6)(C)(ii), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "5 years;" subsection (u)(6)(C)(iii), changed from "2 years" to "5 years;" and subsection (v)(9)(C), changed from "until disposal is authorized by the agency" to "2 years."

The following comments were received concerning the proposed section. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Concerning §289.255 in general, the commenter stated that the new format and numbering are hard to read and follow. He suggested the department highlight/shade the subsection letters and the titles so that the reader can at least see when one subsection starts and ends.

Response: The department is required to use the Texas Register format for the adoption of all rules. When the final printed copy is distributed to all affected licensees and registrants, the revised text will be shaded to make it easy to note the revisions; therefore, the subsection letters and the titles will not be shaded, unless they have been revised. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255 in general, the commenter stated that he experienced confusion with the overall readability due to the Texas Administrative Code (TAC) format requirements. The commenter further stated that the new 25 TAC format is hard to read compared to the prior format of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation (TRCR). The commenter expressed that this will lead to extra costs and potential errors for those trying their best to read, cross-reference, and ensure compliance to the requirements. He further added that the category headings are hard to find because they are buried in the text.

Response: The department is required to use the Texas Register format for the adoption of all rules. In an attempt to reduce the level of confusion and errors, the department has included a "Cross-Reference" table that provides the old rule numbers and the equivalent new rule subsection numbers. The table is located at the back of all rules that have been converted into the Texas Register format and distributed to licensees and registrants. The table will be provided when this section is adopted and distributed. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(c), the commenter questioned the difference between "lay-barge radiography," "offshore radiography," and "underwater radiography." The commenter stated that he recalled an interpretation by department staff that explained offshore radiography to be performed on water with depth less than six feet.

Response: The department defines the terms in question in §289.255(c)(22), (24), and (52) accordingly. The department has made no official interpretation to explain that "offshore" is meant to be radiography performed in water with depths less than six feet. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(c)(38), the commenter questioned if two persons were needed to transport the radioactive source because of the requirements in §289.255(v)(7)(G). The commenter added that this is unnecessary and costly.

Response: Subsection §289.255(v)(7)(G) explains when at least two radiographic personnel are required and that requirement does not include transport of radioactive sources. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(d)(4), the commenter stated that he experienced confusion with the new language in the paragraph and noted that this paragraph states, "Facilities which utilize radiation machines for industrial radiography at permanent radiographic installations only are exempt from the requirements of this subsection except for the requirements of subsections §289.255(m)(1)(A) and (u)(6)(A), (B), (E) and (7)(A). The individual operating radiation machines at permanent radiographic installations must successfully complete a course of at least 40 hours on the applicable subjects..." The commenter expressed that the phrase "this subsection" seemed to mean the entire §289.255. He further stated that no other interpretation logically fit based on positioning of this paragraph and that since his entire operation consisted of a single shielded room x-ray machine, the only requirements of §289.255 that seemed to apply to his operation were the following: §289.255(d)(4) concerning operators required 40 hour training course; §289.255(m)(1)(A) regarding that trainees must possess current trainee status cards; §289.255(u)(6)(A), (B), and (E) concerning annual evaluation of radiation systems; and §289.255(u)(7)(A) that requires radiation machines must be registered.

The commenter further stated that by reading this proposed section, items previously required, but now exempted included the following: §289.255(e)-equipment receipt, transfer, and disposal records; §289.255(f)-radiation survey instruments; §289.255(g)-quarterly inventory; §289.255(h)-utilization logs; §289.255(i)-daily equipment inspection; §289.255(j)-shielded room alarms and entrance controls; §289.255(k)-notification of incidents; §289.255(m)(2), (3), and (4) radiographer, radiographer trainer, RSO certification; §289.255(q)-personnel monitoring control; §289.255(r)-access control; and §289.255(s)-posting.

The commenter added that a lot of change has been made to this section, but that he is not particularly opposed because of the low risk of a well-designed shielded room x-ray unit. The commenter further expressed that if he had misunderstood the intent of the section, then he urged the department to strengthen the language and positioning of this exception in order to ensure that everyone clearly understands.

Response: The department further clarified the paragraph by adding the references "(b)(3) and (5), (j)" before the reference "(m)(1)(A)" in this paragraph to ensure that all the necessary exemptions were addressed. The department also deleted the reference "and (7)(A)" at the end of the first sentence since it was unnecessary and deleted the second sentence since it restated what was already included in §289.255(m)(1)(A).

Comment: Concerning §289.255(h)(1)(B), the commenter stated that the words "and signature" need to be added after the word "name" to meet the NRC compatibility requirements equivalent to 10 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 34.71(a)(2).

Response: The department added the suggested language to comply with NRC compatibility requirements equivalent to 10 CFR 34.71(a)(2) because as an agreement state, Texas must adopt this section as comparable to NRC's regulations.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(i)(1)(B), the commenter asked how he is supposed to determine that the survey instrument is responding when using an x-ray machine since the x-ray machine has to be in the "on" position in order to make this determination.

Response: The requirement of this subparagraph is for checks for response to radiation and not intended to require calibration. The department suggests that the licensee or registrant simply perform a battery check of the survey meter to check for response. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(j)(3), the commenter asked how he is supposed to test that the alarm system is operating properly before the installation is used for radiographic operations when the x-ray machine has to be in the "on" position in order to make this determination. The commenter stated that his facility currently possesses a machine with internal machine checks.

Response: The department suggests that the registrant apply to the department for approval of alternative methods for controlling access to high radiation areas in accordance with §289.202(s)(3) as stated in §289.255(j)(1). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(l)(3), the commenter stated that if the enforcement actions did not suspend or revoke the identification (ID) card, then the individual's card should be reciprocally recognized.

Response: The department notes that this paragraph states "Enforcement actions....by an independent certifying entity may be considered when reviewing..." This paragraph does not mean that an individual's card would not be recognized for any type of enforcement action but instead the word "may" is permissive and informs the reader that the department may consider such actions prior to granting reciprocity. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(m)(2)(A)(ii)(IV), the commenter asked what the word "travel" means in this context.

Response: The word "travel" in this context has the same meaning as it would in any other context and that is to transport to and from a point of origin or final destination. This clause provides a list of items that cannot be used to receive credit for the hours of on-the-job training. Travel is included in that list because there is no educational benefit being gained for the person sitting in a vehicle, driver or passenger, "traveling" to a job site. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(m)(3)(B), the commenter suggested the department consider issuing trainer cards rather than taking the time to amend licenses.

Response: This issue will be addressed in a future revision of this section because a revision as suggested by the commenter would incur a fee and there are other departmental resource issues to be considered. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(o), the commenter suggested the department provide an explanation of the procedures for submitting the application and money.

Response: There will be two separate application forms, one for the exam and one for the certification (that involves review of the training documentation). Often, an individual will submit an application for an exam, take the exam, but not complete the required on-the-job training until some time later. In this case, the individual would submit the separate application for certification (and the $100 fee) upon completion of the training. In a situation where an individual has completed the training requirements and applies to take the exam, a single check or money order for the combined fee of $125 may be submitted, but both application forms must be submitted in order for the department to appropriately allocate the fee money. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(o)(1)(B), the commenter expressed that this subsection states a fee of $25 for the exam and §289.255(p) states a fee of $100 for the ID card. The commenter asked if the new cost for the ID card is $125. The commenter asked if someone under reciprocity with an ID card from another agreement state/NRC will have to pay $100 to get a Texas ID card.

Response: A certification ID card is issued upon completion of the requirements for certification. One requirement is to successfully pass the exam and the exam fee is $25. Another requirement is to complete the training requirements. The fee for review of training requirements is $100. Since all requirements must be met before a certification ID card is issued, the total cost is $125. A person granted reciprocity with an ID card from another certifying entity is not required to get a Texas certification ID card. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(p)(1)(A), the commenter asked how the fees were determined and broken down to $100 and $25.

Response: The department calculated the fees by using actual staff time and resource costs assigned to those activities. The department created two separate fees, one for the examination and one for the actual certification to reflect a more accurate cost recovery by the department. The examination cost is normalized over the total number of persons tested while the certification cost considers the staff time required to review the individual's qualifications. The two different fees also allow the department to accurately recover costs when only one component of certification is performed by the department. For example, an individual may take the exam in Texas, but submit training documentation and be certified by another certifying entity. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(q)(2)(G), the commenter asked why the subparagraph requires that the film badge or TLD be turned in for processing if the readings from the electronic personal dosimeter are greater than 200 millirem (2 mSv) as this specific equipment already gives you the dose and dose rate.

Response: The electronic personal dosimeter will give those readings for the day or shift that it is being used, but may not represent the individual's cumulative dose for the time period being monitored by the film badge, TLD, or OSL. This requirement is included in this subparagraph so that the individual performing radiographic operations does not become dependent on the electronic personal dosimeter and alarming ratemeter but instead continues to practice and comply with all requirements that are meant to provide for the radiographic personnel's safety. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(r)(1), the commenter asked why the paragraph requires that the individual maintaining visual surveillance of the operation specifically has to be a radiographer. The commenter suggested the words "a radiographer" be changed to "radiographic personnel."

Response: The department added the suggested language to this paragraph.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(u)(4)(D), the commenter asked in what situation would this subparagraph apply that is different from a situation in which §289.255(u)(4)(E) would apply.

Response: The difference between §289.255(u)(4)(D) and (E) is that §289.255(u)(4)(E) only applies in a one-person operation where an individual is not only the radiographer and the radiation safety officer (RSO), but is also the only individual that performs radiography. The rules permit this in a permanent radiographic installation or with the use of only x-ray machines. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(u)(4)(F), the commenter asked who trains the trainer when one individual serves as RSO, radiographer, and trainer. The commenter stated this subparagraph needed clarification as well as the documentation of this training.

Response: The requirements of this subparagraph do not specify who has to perform the training and therefore the decision of who trains the trainer, when one individual serves as RSO, radiographer, and trainer, is left to the licensee and/or registrant. Records of the annual refresher training are required by §289.255(u)(4)(J) and (v)(7)(L). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(v)(5)(C), the commenter asked why this subparagraph includes depleted uranium (DU) for leak testing. The commenter further questioned why a separate DU leak test must be performed every 12 months if leak testing sources every six months is already required.

Response: The licensee can perform a DU leak test at the same time that leak testing of sources is performed and thus be in compliance with the requirements of this subparagraph. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(v)(7)(F), the commenter asked who trains the trainer when one individual serves as RSO, radiographer, and trainer. The commenter stated this subparagraph needed clarification as well as the documentation of this training.

Response: The requirements of this subparagraph do not specify who has to perform the training and therefore the decision of who trains the trainer, when one individual serves as RSO, radiographer, and trainer, is left to the licensee and/or registrant. Records of the annual refresher training are required by §289.255(u)(4)(J) and (v)(7)(L). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(w)(1)(B)(iv), the commenter questioned what is meant by the word "mass" in this context. The commenter suggested the department clarify this term.

Response: "Mass" in this context means the number of pounds of DU the licensee possesses. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.255(y)(1)(B)(iii), the commenter stated that his facility has no optically stimulated luminescence devices or electronic personal dosimeters and suggested the department add clarifying language such as "when applicable" or "as applicable" if equipment is not available for use.

Response: The department added the words "as a minimum" to this clause to allow for flexibility when the licensee and/or registrant does not possess all of the different personnel monitoring equipment.

Commenters included representatives from Raytheon TI Systems, Frank Malek and Associates, Sharp Radiation Services, MQS Inspection, and San Jacinto College.

Subchapter C. Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation

25 TAC §289.115

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901708

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter F. License Regulations

25 TAC §289.255

The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

§289.255.Radiation Safety Requirements and Licensing and Registration Procedures For Industrial Radiography.

(a)

Purpose.

(1)

The requirements in this section establish radiation safety requirements and licensing and registration procedures for using sources of radiation for industrial radiography and for certification of industrial radiographers.

(2)

The requirements in this section apply to licensees and registrants who possess sources of radiation for industrial radiography, including radiation machines, accelerators, and sealed radioactive sources.

(3)

Each licensee and registrant is responsible for ensuring compliance with this chapter, license and registration conditions, and orders of the agency.

(4)

Each licensee and registrant is also responsible for ensuring that radiographic personnel performing activities under a license or registration comply with this chapter, license and registration conditions, and orders of the agency.

(b)

Scope.

(1)

The requirements of this section are in addition to and not in substitution for other applicable requirements of this chapter.

(2)

The requirements of §289.251 of this title (relating to Exemptions, General Licenses, and General License Acknowledgments), §289.252 of this title (relating to Licensing of Radioactive Material), and §289.257 of this title (relating to Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material) apply to licensees subject to this section.

(3)

The requirements of §289.226 of this title (relating to Registration of Radiation Machine Use and Services) apply to registrants subject to this section.

(4)

The requirements of §289.119 of this title (relating to Radiation Safety Requirements for Particle Accelerators) apply to certain persons using accelerators subject to this section.

(5)

The requirements of the following sections of this chapter apply to all licensed and registered industrial radiographic operations:

(A)

§289.201 of this title (relating to General Provisions);

(B)

§289.202 of this title (relating to Standards for Protection Against Radiation);

(C)

§289.203 of this title (relating to Notices, Instructions, and Reports to Workers; Inspections);

(D)

§289.204 of this title (relating to Fees for Certificates of Registration, Radioactive Material(s) Licenses, Emergency Planning and Implementation, and Other Regulatory Services); and

(E)

§289.205 of this title (relating to Hearing and Enforcement Procedures).

(c)

Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this section, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(1)

Additional authorized use/storage site--Authorized use/storage locations specifically named on a license or certificate of registration other than the main site specified on a license or certificate of registration, or other than temporary job sites.

(2)

ANSI--American National Standards Institute.

(3)

Annual refresher safety training--A review conducted or provided by the licensee or registrant for its employees on radiation safety aspects of industrial radiography. The review may include, as appropriate, the results of internal audits, new procedures or equipment, new or revised regulations, accidents or errors that have been observed, and should also provide opportunities for employees to ask safety questions.

(4)

Associated equipment--Equipment that is used in conjunction with a radiographic exposure device to make radiographic exposures that drives, guides, or comes in contact with the source, (such as, guide tube, control tube, control cable (drive cable), removable source stop, "J" tube and collimator when it is used as an exposure head).

(5)

Cabinet x-ray system--An x-ray system with the x-ray tube installed in an enclosure independent of existing architectural structures except the floor on which it may be placed. An x-ray tube used within a shielded part of a building, or x-ray equipment that may temporarily or occasionally incorporate portable shielding, is not considered a cabinet x-ray system. The cabinet x-ray system is intended to:

(A)

contain at least that portion of a material being irradiated;

(B)

provide radiation attenuation; and

(C)

exclude personnel from its interior during generation of radiation.

(6)

Certifiable cabinet x-ray system--An existing uncertified x-ray system that has been modified to meet the certification requirements specified in 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1020.40.

(7)

Certification identification (ID) card--The document issued by the agency to individuals who have completed the requirements stated in subsection (m)(2)(A) of this section.

(8)

Certified cabinet x-ray system--An x-ray system that has been certified in accordance with 21 CFR 1010.2 as being manufactured and assembled on or after April 10, 1975, according to the provisions of 21 CFR 1020.40.

(9)

Certifying entity--An independent certifying organization meeting the requirements in Appendix A of 10 CFR Part 34 or an agreement state meeting the requirements in Appendix A, Parts II and III of 10 CFR Part 34.

(10)

Collimator--A small radiation shield that is placed on the end of a guide tube or directly onto a radiographic exposure device to restrict the size of the radiation beam when the sealed source is cranked into position to make a radiographic exposure.

(11)

Control cable (drive cable)--The cable that is connected to the source assembly and used to drive the source from and return it to the shielded position.

(12)

Control mechanism (drive mechanism)--A device that enables the source assembly to be moved from and returned to the shielded position. A drive mechanism is also known as a crank assembly.

(13)

Control tube--A protective sheath for guiding the drive cable. The control tube connects the drive mechanism to the radiographic exposure device.

(14)

Crank-out device--The drive cable, control tube, and drive mechanism used to move the sealed source to and from the shielded position to make an industrial radiographic exposure.

(15)

Enclosed radiography--Industrial radiography conducted in an enclosed cabinet or room. Enclosed radiography includes shielded-room radiography.

(16)

Exposure head--A device that locates the gamma radiography sealed source in the selected working position. An exposure head is also known as a source stop.

(17)

Fluoroscopic imaging assembly--A subsystem in which x-ray photons produce a fluoroscopic image. It includes the image receptors such as the image intensifier and spot-film device, electrical interlocks, if any, and structural material providing linkage between the image receptor and source assembly.

(18)

GED--General educational development.

(19)

Guide tube--A flexible or rigid tube, such as a "J" tube, for guiding the source assembly and the attached drive cable from the exposure device to the exposure head. The guide tube may also include the connections necessary for attachment to the exposure device and to the exposure head.

(20)

Independent certifying organization--An independent organization that meets all of the criteria of Appendix A of 10 CFR Part 34.

(21)

Industrial radiography (radiography)--A nondestructive testing method using ionizing radiation, such as gamma rays or x rays, to make radiographic images for the purpose of detecting flaws in objects without destroying them.

(22)

Lay-barge radiography--Industrial radiography performed on any water vessel used for laying pipe.

(23)

Lock-out survey--A radiation survey performed to determine that a sealed source is in its fully shielded position before moving the radiographic exposure device or source changer to a different temporary job site or before securing the radiographic exposure device or source changer against unauthorized removal.

(24)

Offshore--Within the territorial waters of the state of Texas. The territorial waters of Texas extend to the three marine league line or nine nautical miles from the Texas coast.

(25)

On-the-job training--Experience in all of the areas considered to be directly involved in the radiography process. The hours of on-the-job training do not include safety meetings, classroom training, travel, darkroom activities, film development and interpretation, or use of a cabinet x-ray unit.

(26)

Permanent radiographic installation--An enclosed shielded room, cell, or vault, not located at a temporary jobsite, in which radiography is performed and meets the criteria of subsection (j) of this section.

(27)

Permanent storage site--Any location that is specifically named on a license or certificate of registration and that is used only for storage of sources of radiation.

(28)

Personal supervision--Guidance and instruction provided to a radiographer trainee by a radiographer trainer who is present at the site, in visual contact with the trainee while the trainee is using sources of radiation, associated equipment, and survey meters, and in such proximity that immediate assistance can be given if required.

(29)

Pipeliners--A directional beam radiographic exposure device.

(30)

Platform radiography--Industrial radiography performed on an offshore platform or other structure over a body of water.

(31)

Practical examination--A demonstration through practical application of the safety rules and principles in industrial radiography including use of all appropriate equipment and procedures.

(32)

Radiation safety officer (RSO)--An individual named by the licensee or registrant who has a knowledge of, responsibility for, and authority to enforce appropriate radiation protection rules, standards, and practices on behalf of the licensee or registrant and who meets the requirements of subsection (m)(4) of this section.

(33)

Radiographer--Any individual who has successfully completed the training, testing, and documentation requirements of subsection (m)(2)(A) of this section and who is responsible to the licensee or registrant for assuring compliance with the requirements of the agency's regulations and conditions of the license or certificate of registration. These individuals may be referred to as certified industrial radiographers or certified radiographers. The individual may also:

(A)

perform industrial radiographic operations; or

(B)

be in attendance at the site where the sources of radiation are being used.

(34)

Radiographer certification--Written approval received from a certifying entity stating that an individual has satisfactorily met certain established radiation safety, testing, and experience criteria.

(35)

Radiographer trainee--Any individual who has successfully completed the training and documentation requirements of subsection (m)(1)(A) of this section and who must use sources of radiation and related handling tools or radiation survey instruments under the personal supervision of a radiographer trainer.

(36)

Radiographer trainer--A radiographer who instructs and supervises radiographer trainees during on-the-job training and who meets the requirements of subsection (m)(3) of this section.

(37)

Radiographic exposure device--Any instrument containing a sealed source that is used to make a radiograph (e.g., camera).

(38)

Radiographic operations--All activities associated with the presence of x-ray machines or radioactive sources in a radiographic exposure device during the use of the machine or device or transport (except when being transported by a common or contract transport). Radiographic operations include surveys to confirm the adequacy of boundaries, setting up equipment, and any activity inside restricted area boundaries.

(39)

Radiographic personnel--Any radiographer, radiographer trainer, or radiographer trainee.

(40)

Residential location--Any area where structures are located in which people lodge or live, and the grounds on which these structures are located including, but not limited to, houses, apartments, condominiums, and garages.

(41)

S-tube--A tube through which the radioactive source travels when inside a radiographic exposure device.

(42)

Shielded position--The location within the radiographic exposure device or source changer where the sealed source is secured and restricted from movement.

(43)

Shielded-room radiography--Industrial radiography conducted in a room shielded so radiation levels at every location on the exterior meet the limitations specified in §289.202(n) of this title. A shielded room is also known as a bay or bunker.

(44)

Source assembly (pigtail)--An assembly that consists of the sealed source and a connector that attaches the source to the control cable. The source assembly may also include a ball stop used to secure the source in the shielded position.

(45)

Source changer--A device designed and used to replace sealed sources in radiographic exposure devices, including those used to transport and store sealed sources.

(46)

Storage area--Any location, facility, or vehicle that is used to store and secure a radiation machine, radiographic exposure device, a storage container, or a sealed source when it is not used for radiographic operations. Storage areas are locked or have a physical barrier to prevent accidental exposure, tampering, or unauthorized removal of the machine, device, container, or source.

(47)

Storage container--A device in which the sealed source is secured and stored.

(48)

Storage facility--A structure designed to house one or more sources of radiation to provide security and shielding at a permanent storage site. A storage facility is also known as a vault.

(49)

Temporary job site--Any location where industrial radiography is performed other than the specific use location(s) listed on a license or certificate of registration. If use of sources of radiation is authorized at a temporary job site, storage incident to that use is also authorized.

(50)

Trainee status card--The document issued by the agency following completion of the requirements of subsection (m)(1)(A) of this section.

(51)

Transport container--A package that is designed to provide radiation safety and security when sealed sources are transported and meets all applicable requirements of the United States Department of Transportation (DOT).

(52)

Underwater radiography--Industrial radiography performed when the radiographic exposure device and/or related equipment are beneath the surface of the water.

(d)

Exemptions.

(1)

Uses of certified and certifiable cabinet x-ray systems are exempt from the requirements of this section except for the requirements of subsections (b)(3) and (5) and (u)(6)(C)-(E) of this section.

(2)

Industrial uses of hand-held light intensified imaging devices are exempt from the requirements in this section if the exposure level 18 inches from the source of radiation to any individual does not exceed 2 millirem per hour (mrem/hr) (0.02 millisievert per hour (mSv/hr)). Devices with exposure levels that exceed the 2 mrem/hr (0.02 mSv/hr) level shall meet the applicable requirements of this section and §289.252 of this title or §289.226 of this title, as applicable.

(3)

Radiation machines determined by the agency to constitute a minimal threat to human health and safety in accordance with §289.201(q)(2) of this title, are exempt from the requirements in this section except for the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(4)

Facilities that utilize radiation machines for industrial radiography at permanent radiographic installations only are exempt from the requirements of this section except for the requirements of subsections (b)(3) and (5), (j), (m)(1)(A) and (u)(6)(A), (B), and (E).

(e)

Receipt, transfer, and disposal of sources of radiation and devices using depleted uranium (DU) for shielding. Each licensee and registrant shall make and maintain records in accordance with subsection (w)(1) of this section, showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of sources of radiation and devices using DU for shielding.

(f)

Radiation survey instruments.

(1)

Each licensee and registrant shall have a sufficient number of calibrated, appropriate, and operable radiation survey instruments at each location where sources of radiation are present to perform the radiation surveys required by this section and §289.202(p)(1) and (2) of this title. These radiation survey instruments shall be capable of measuring a range from 2 mrem/hr (0.002 mSv/hr) through 1 rem per hour (rem/hr) (0.01 sievert per hour (Sv/hr)).

(2)

Each radiation survey instrument shall be calibrated:

(A)

by a person licensed or registered by the agency, another agreement state, or the NRC to perform such service;

(B)

at energies appropriate for the licensee's or registrant's use;

(C)

at intervals not to exceed six months and after each instrument servicing other than battery replacement;

(D)

at two points located approximately one-third and two-thirds of full- scale on each scale for linear scale instruments; for logarithmic scale instruments, at mid-range of each decade, and at two points of at least one decade; and for digital instruments, at three points between 2 and 1,000 mrem/hr (0.02 and 10 mSv/hr); and

(E)

to demonstrate an accuracy within plus or minus 20% of the true radiation level at each point checked.

(3)

Each radiation survey instrument shall be checked with a radiation source at the beginning of each day of use and at the beginning of each work shift to ensure it is operating properly.

(4)

Records of the calibrations required by paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(2) of this section.

(g)

Quarterly inventory.

(1)

Each licensee and registrant shall perform a physical inventory at intervals not to exceed three months to account for all sources of radiation and for devices containing DU received or possessed.

(2)

Records of the quarterly inventories required by paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be made and maintained for agency inspection in accordance with subsection (w)(3) of this section.

(h)

Utilization logs.

(1)

Each licensee and registrant shall make and maintain current logs of the use, removal, and return to storage of each source of radiation. The information shall be recorded in the log when the source is removed from and returned to storage. The logs shall include:

(A)

a unique identification, for example, the serial number, of the following:

(i)

each radiation machine;

(ii)

each radiographic exposure device containing a sealed source or transport and storage container in which the sealed source is located; and

(iii)

each sealed source;

(B)

the name and signature of the radiographer using the source of radiation;

(C)

the location(s) and date(s) where each source of radiation is used; and

(D)

the date(s) each source of radiation is removed from storage and returned to storage.

(2)

Utilization logs may be kept on BRC Form 255-U, Utilization Log, or on clear, legible records containing all the information required by paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(3)

Records of utilization logs shall be made and maintained for agency inspection in accordance with subsection (w)(15) of this section.

(i)

Inspection and maintenance of radiation machines, radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments.

(1)

Each day before using equipment, the radiographer shall:

(A)

perform visual and operational checks on radiation machines, survey instruments, radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment and source changers to ensure that:

(i)

the equipment is in good working condition;

(ii)

the sources are adequately shielded in radiographic exposure devices; and

(iii)

required labeling is present and legible.

(B)

determine the survey instrument is responding using check sources or other appropriate means; and

(C)

remove the equipment from service until repaired if equipment problems are found.

(2)

Each licensee and registrant shall have written procedures for the following:

(A)

inspection and routine maintenance of radiation machines, radiographic exposure devices, source changers, associated equipment, transport and storage containers, and survey instruments at intervals not to exceed three months to ensure the proper functioning of components important to safety. All appropriate components shall be maintained in accordance with manufacturers' specifications. Radiation machines, radiographic exposure devices, transport containers and source changers being stored are exempted from this requirement provided that each radiation machine, radiographic exposure device, transport container, or source changer is inspected and repaired prior to being returned to service. This inspection and maintenance program shall cover, as a minimum, the items listed in subsection (y)(2) of this section; and

(B)

inspection and maintenance necessary to maintain the Type B packaging used to transport radioactive material. The inspection and maintenance program must include procedures to assure that Type B packages are shipped and maintained in accordance with the certificate of compliance or other approval.

(3)

Records of equipment problems and of any maintenance performed in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(4) of this section.

(j)

Permanent radiographic installations.

(1)

Permanent radiographic installations shall have high radiation area entrance controls as described in §289.202(s)(1)-(4) of this title or if applicable, the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation (TRCR) Part 35, §§35.8 and 35.9, as adopted by reference in §289.119 of this title (relating to Radiation Safety Requirements for Particle Accelerators).

(2)

The entrance controls shall be tested for proper operation at the beginning of each day of equipment use.

(3)

The alarm system shall be tested for proper operation with a source of radiation each day before the installation is used for radiographic operations. The test shall include a check for the visible and/or audible signals.

(4)

Entrance control devices that reduce the radiation level upon entry (designated in paragraph (1) of this subsection) shall be tested monthly.

(5)

If an entrance control device or alarm is operating improperly, it shall be immediately labeled as defective and repaired within seven calendar days. The facility may continue to be used during this seven-day period, provided the licensee or registrant implements the continuous surveillance requirements of subsection (r) of this section, ensures that radiographic personnel use an alarming ratemeter, and complies with the requirements of subsection (v)(7)(G) of this section.

(6)

Records of the tests and repairs required by this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(5) of this section.

(k)

Notification of incidents.

(1)

The agency shall be notified of the loss or theft of sources of radiation, overexposures, and excessive levels in accordance with §289.202(ww)-(yy), and (bbb) of this title.

(2)

In addition, each licensee or registrant shall submit a written report within 30 days to the agency whenever one of the following events occurs:

(A)

a source assembly cannot be returned to the fully-shielded position and properly secured;

(B)

the source assembly becomes unintentionally disconnected from the drive cable;

(C)

any component critical to safe operation of the radiographic exposure device fails to properly perform its intended function;

(D)

an indicator on a radiation machine fails to show that radiation is being produced;

(E)

an exposure switch on a radiation machine fails to terminate production of radiation when turned to the off position; or

(F)

a safety interlock fails to terminate x-ray production.

(3)

The licensee or registrant shall include the following information in each report submitted in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection:

(A)

a description of the equipment problem;

(B)

cause of each incident, if known;

(C)

manufacturer and model number of equipment involved in the incident;

(D)

manufacturer and model and serial number of equipment involved in the incident;

(E)

location, time, and date of the incident;

(F)

actions taken to establish normal operations;

(G)

corrective actions taken or planned to prevent recurrence; and

(H)

names of personnel involved in the incident.

(l)

Reciprocity.

(1)

All reciprocal recognition of licenses or certificates of registration by the agency will be granted in accordance with §289.226(r) of this title or §289.252(s) of this title.

(2)

Reciprocal recognition by the agency of an individual radiographer certification will be granted provided that:

(A)

the individual holds a valid certification in the appropriate category and class issued by a certifying entity, as defined in subsection (c) of this section;

(B)

the requirements and procedures of the certifying entity issuing the certification afford the same or comparable certification standards as those afforded by subsection (m)(2)(A)(i)-(iv) of this section; and

(C)

the individual submits a legible copy of the certification to the agency prior to entry into Texas.

(3)

Enforcement actions with the agency, another agreement state, or the NRC or sanctions by an independent certifying entity may be considered when reviewing a request for reciprocal recognition from a licensee, registrant, or certified radiographer.

(4)

Certified radiographers who are granted reciprocity by the agency shall maintain the certification upon which the reciprocal recognition was granted, or prior to the expiration of such certification, shall meet the requirements of subsection (m)(2)(A) of this section.

(m)

Requirements for qualifications of radiographic personnel.

(1)

Radiographer trainee. No licensee or registrant shall permit any individual to act as a radiographer trainee until the individual possesses the original or a copy of an agency-issued trainee status card or certification ID card.

(A)

To obtain an agency-issued trainee status card, the licensee, registrant, or the individual must document to the agency on BRC Form 255-E or equivalent that such individual has successfully completed a course of at least 40 hours on the applicable subjects outlined in subsection (y)(1) of this section. The course must be one accepted by the agency, another agreement state, or the NRC.

(B)

The trainee must carry a copy of the completed BRC Form 255-E, in the interim period after submitting documentation to the agency and before receiving a trainee status card. The copy of the completed BRC Form 255-E that was submitted to the agency may be used in lieu of the trainee status card for a period of 60 days from the date recorded by the trainee on the documentation.

(C)

The individual shall notify the agency by telephone, telegram, telefacsimile, electronic media transmission, or in writing of the need for a replacement trainee status card. The individual shall carry a copy of documentation of the request while performing industrial radiographic operations until a replacement trainee status card is received from the agency.

(2)

Radiographer. No licensee or registrant shall permit any individual to act as a radiographer until the individual carries a valid radiographer certification. To obtain a radiographer certification, an individual must comply with subsection (p)(1) of this section and the following:

(A)

the licensee, registrant, or the individual must document to the agency on BRC Form 255-R or equivalent that such individual:

(i)

has completed the requirements of paragraph (1)(A) of this subsection;

(ii)

has completed on-the-job training as a radiographer trainee supervised by one or more radiographer trainers authorized on a license or certificate of registration;

(I)

The radiographer trainee must carry a legible trainee status card in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection while obtaining the on-the-job training specified in subclauses (II)-(VII) of this clause.

(II)

The on-the-job training shall include at least 200 hours of active participation in radioactive materials industrial radiographic operations or 120 hours of active participation in x-ray industrial radiographic operations.

(III)

Individuals performing industrial radiography utilizing radioactive materials and x-ray machines must complete both segments (320 hours) of on-the-job training.

(IV)

The hours of on-the-job training do not include safety meetings, classroom training, travel, darkroom activities, film development and interpretation, or use of a cabinet x-ray unit.

(V)

One year of documented experience or on-the-job training as authorized by another agreement state or the NRC may be substituted for subclauses (II) or (III) of this clause. The documentation must be submitted to the agency on BRC Form 255-OS or equivalent.

(VI)

The trainee shall be under the personal supervision of a radiographer trainer whenever a radiographer trainee:

(-a-)

uses radiation machines, radiographic exposure devices, or associated equipment; or

(-b-)

performs radiation surveys required by subsection (v)(8) of this section to determine that the sealed source has returned to the shielded position after an exposure or the radiation machine has stopped producing radiation.

(VII)

The personal supervision shall include the following.

(-a-)

The radiographer trainer's physical presence at the site where the sources of radiation are being used;

(-b-)

The availability of the radiographer trainer to give immediate assistance if required; and

(-c-)

The radiographer trainer's direct observation of the trainee's performance of the operations referred to in this section.

(iii)

has successfully completed within the last five years the appropriate agency-administered examination prescribed in subsection (o)(2) of this section or the appropriate examination of another certifying entity that affords the same or comparable certification standards as those afforded by this clause and clauses (i), (ii) and (iv) of this subparagraph; and

(iv)

possesses a current certification ID card issued in accordance with subsection (p)(2) of this section or by another certifying entity that affords the same or comparable certification standards as those afforded by this clause and clauses (i)-(iii) of this subparagraph.

(B)

Reciprocal recognition by the agency of an individual radiographer certification may be granted according to subsection (l)(2) and (3) of this section:

(C)

Once an individual has completed the requirements of paragraph (2)(A)(iv) of this subsection, the licensee or registrant is not required to submit the documentation referenced in paragraph (2)(A)(i) and (ii) of this subsection.

(3)

Radiographer trainer.

(A)

No licensee or registrant shall permit any individual to act as a radiographer trainer until:

(i)

it has been documented to the agency on BRC Form 255-T or equivalent that such individual has:

(I)

met the radiographer certification requirements of paragraph (2)(A) of this subsection; and

(II)

one year of documented experience as a certified radiographer.

(ii)

such individual is named on the specific license or certificate of registration issued by the agency and under which the individual is acting as a radiographer trainer; and

(iii)

determination is made by the agency that the individual is not currently under order from the agency prohibiting the individual from acting as a radiographer trainer.

(B)

The specific duties of the radiographer trainer include, but are not limited to, the following:

(i)

providing personal supervision to any radiographer trainee at the site where the sources of radiation are being used; and

(ii)

preventing any unauthorized use of a source of radiation by a radiographer trainee.

(4)

RSO for industrial radiography.

(A)

An RSO shall be designated on every industrial radiography license and certificate of registration issued by the agency.

(B)

The RSO's qualifications shall be submitted to the agency and shall include as a minimum:

(i)

possession of a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalency based on the GED test;

(ii)

completion of the training and testing requirements of paragraph (1)(A) and (2)(A)(iii) of this subsection and subsection (n)(1)(B) of this section; and

(iii)

two years of documented radiation protection experience, including knowledge of industrial radiographic operations with at least 40 hours of active participation in industrial radiographic operations.

(C)

The specific duties of the RSO include, but are not limited to, the following:

(i)

establishing and overseeing operating, safety, emergency, and as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) procedures, and to review them regularly to ensure that the procedures are current and conform with the requirements of this chapter;

(ii)

overseeing and approving all phases of the training program for radiographic personnel so that appropriate and effective radiation protection practices are taught;

(iii)

ensuring that required radiation surveys and leak tests are performed and documented in accordance with this chapter, including any corrective measures when levels of radiation exceed established limits;

(iv)

ensuring that personnel monitoring devices are calibrated and used properly by occupationally-exposed personnel;

(v)

ensuring that timely notifications to employees are made as required by §289.203 of this title;

(vi)

ensuring that timely notifications to the agency are made as required by this section and §289.202 of this title;

(vii)

ensuring that any required interlock switches and warning signals are functioning and that radiation signs, ropes, and barriers are properly posted and positioned;

(viii)

investigating, determining the cause, taking steps to prevent the recurrence, and reporting to the agency each:

(I)

known or suspected case of radiation exposure to an individual or radiation level detected in excess of limits established by this chapter; and

(II)

theft or loss of a source(s) of radiation.

(ix)

having a thorough knowledge of management policies and administrative procedures of the licensee or registrant;

(x)

assuming control and having the authority to institute corrective actions including shutdown of operations when necessary in emergency situations or unsafe conditions;

(xi)

maintaining records as required by this chapter in accordance with subsection (w) of this section;

(xii)

ensuring the proper storing, labeling, transport, and use of exposure devices and sources of radiation;

(xiii)

ensuring that inventory and inspection and maintenance programs are performed in accordance with subsections (g) and (i) of this section;

(xiv)

ensuring that personnel are complying with the requirements of this chapter and the conditions of the license or the certificate of registration; and

(xv)

ensuring that the operating, safety, and emergency procedures of the licensee or registrant are met in accordance with subsections (u)(4)(A)-(C) and (G) and (v)(7)(A)-(C) and (I) of this section.

(n)

Additional qualification requirements.

(1)

No licensee or registrant shall permit any individual to act as a radiographer trainee, radiographer, radiographer trainer, or RSO until such individual has:

(A)

received copies of and demonstrated an understanding of the following by successful completion of a written or oral examination administered by the licensee or registrant covering this material:

(i)

the requirements contained in this section and the applicable requirements of §289.201 of this title, §289.202 of this title, §289.203 of this title, and §289.257 of this title;

(ii)

the appropriate conditions of the license(s) and certificate(s) of registration;

(iii)

the licensee's or registrant's operating, safety, and emergency procedures; and

(B)

demonstrated competence in the use of sources of radiation, radiographic exposure devices, associated equipment, related handling tools, and radiation survey instruments, that may be employed in industrial radiographic assignments by successful completion of a practical examination administered by the licensee or registrant covering such use.

(2)

Records of the administration of and the examinations required by paragraph (1) of this subsection shall be made and maintained for agency inspection in accordance with subsection (w)(7) of this section.

(o)

Application and fee for radiographer certification examinations.

(1)

Application.

(A)

An application for taking the examination shall be on forms prescribed and furnished by the agency.

(B)

The non-refundable application fee for examination shall be $25.

(C)

The appropriate fee shall be submitted with the application for examination when filing with the agency.

(D)

The application and the non-refundable fee shall be submitted to the agency on or before the dates specified by the agency.

(2)

Examination. The examination shall be given for the purpose of determining the qualifications of applicants.

(A)

The scope of the examination and the methods of procedure, including determination of the passing score, shall be prescribed by the agency. The examination will assess the applicant's knowledge to safely use sources of radiation and related equipment and the applicant's knowledge of this section, §289.201 of this title, and §289.202 of this title.

(B)

The examination will be administered by the agency or persons authorized by the agency.

(C)

A candidate failing an examination may apply for re-examination in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection and will be re-examined. A candidate shall not retake the same version of the agency-administered examination.

(D)

The examination shall normally be offered once each month. Times, dates, and locations of the examination will be furnished by the agency.

(E)

The examination will be in the English language.

(F)

To take the examination, an individual shall present a photo identification card, such as a driver's license, at the time of the examination.

(G)

Calculators will be permitted during the examination. However, calculators or computers with preprogrammed data or formulas, including exposure calculators, will not be permitted during the examination.

(H)

The examination will be a "closed-book" examination.

(I)

Any individual observed by an agency proctor to be compromising the integrity of the examination shall be required to surrender the examination, the answer sheet, and all scratch paper. Such individual will not be allowed to complete the examination, will forfeit the examination fee, and will leave the examination site to avoid disturbing other examinees. Such individual must wait 90 days before taking a new examination and must resubmit a new application and a $25 non-refundable examination fee.

(J)

Examination material shall be returned to the agency at the end of the examination. No photographic or other copying of examination questions or materials shall be permitted. Disclosure by any individual of the contents of any examination prior to its administration is prohibited.

(K)

The names and scores of individuals taking the examination shall be a public record.

(p)

Radiographer certification.

(1)

An application for radiographer certification shall be on BRC Form 255-R, BRC Form 255-OS, or equivalent.

(A)

The non-refundable fee for radiographer certification shall be $100.

(B)

The appropriate fee shall be submitted with the application for radiographer certification when filing with the agency.

(2)

A certification ID card shall be issued to each individual who successfully completes the requirements of subsection (m)(2)(A)(i)-(iii) of this section.

(A)

Each individual's certification ID card shall contain the individual's photograph. The agency will take the photograph at the time the examination is administered.

(B)

The certification ID card remains the property of the agency and may be revoked or suspended under the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection.

(C)

Any individual who needs to replace a certification ID card shall submit to the agency a written request for a replacement certification ID card, stating the reason a replacement certification ID card is needed. A non-refundable fee of $35 shall be paid to the agency for each replacement of a certification ID card. The prescribed fee shall be submitted with the written request for a replacement certification ID card. The individual shall carry a copy of the request while performing industrial radiographic operations until a replacement certification ID card is received from the agency.

(D)

Each certification ID card is valid for a period of five years, unless revoked or suspended in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection. Each certification ID card expires at the end of the day, in the month and year stated on the certification ID card.

(3)

Renewal of a radiographer certification.

(A)

Applications for examination to renew a radiographer certification shall be filed in accordance with subsection (o)(1) of this section.

(B)

The examination for renewal of a radiographer certification shall be administered in accordance with subsection (o)(2) of this section.

(C)

A renewal certification ID card shall be issued in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(4)

Suspension or revocation of a radiographer certification.

(A)

Any radiographer who violates the requirements of this chapter, or provides any material false statement in the application or any statement of fact required in accordance with this chapter, may be required to show cause at a formal hearing why the radiographer certification should not be suspended or revoked in accordance with §289.205 of this title.

(B)

When an agency order has been issued for an industrial radiographer to cease and desist from the use of sources of radiation or the agency suspends or revokes the individual's radiographer certification, the radiographer shall surrender the certification ID card to the agency until the order is changed or the suspension expires.

(C)

An individual whose radiographer certification has been suspended or revoked by the agency or another certifying entity shall obtain written approval from the agency to apply to take the examination.

(q)

Personnel monitoring control.

(1)

The personnel monitoring program shall meet the applicable requirements of §289.202 of this title.

(2)

During industrial radiographic operations, the following shall apply:

(A)

No licensee or registrant shall permit an individual to act as a radiographer, radiographer trainer, or radiographer trainee unless each individual wears, on the trunk of the body at all times during radiographic operations:

(i)

an individual monitoring device that meets the requirements of §289.202(p)(3) of this title;

(ii)

direct-reading pocket dosimeter or an electronic personal dosimeter; and

(iii)

an alarming ratemeter.

(B)

For permanent radiographic installations where other appropriate alarming or warning devices are in routine use, the wearing of an alarming ratemeter is not required.

(C)

Pocket dosimeters shall meet the criteria in ANSI 13.5-1972 at the time of manufacture and shall have a range of zero to 200 mrem (2 mSv). Electronic personal dosimeters may only be used in place of ion-chamber pocket dosimeters.

(D)

Pocket dosimeters shall be recharged at the start of each work shift.

(E)

As a minimum, direct reading pocket dosimeters shall be recharged and electronic personal dosimeters reset, and "start" readings recorded:

(i)

immediately before checking out any source of radiation from an authorized storage location for the purposes of conducting industrial radiographic operations; and

(ii)

before beginning radiographic operations on any subsequent calendar day (if the source of radiation has not been checked back into an authorized storage site).

(F)

Whenever radiographic operations are concluded for the day, the "end" readings on pocket dosimeters or electronic personal dosimeters shall be recorded and the accumulated occupational doses for that day determined and recorded.

(G)

If an individual's pocket dosimeter is discharged beyond its range (for example, goes "off-scale"), or if an individual's electronic personal dosimeter reads greater than 200 mrem (2 mSv), industrial radiographic operations by that individual shall cease and the individual's monitoring device shall be processed immediately. The individual shall not return to work with sources of radiation until a determination of the radiation exposure has been made. This determination shall be made by the RSO or the RSO's designee. The results of this determination shall be included in the records maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(8) of this section.

(H)

Each individual monitoring device shall be assigned to and worn by only one individual.

(I)

Individual monitoring devices must be replaced at least monthly. After replacement, each individual monitoring device must be returned to the supplier for processing within 14 calendar days of the exchange date specified by the personnel monitoring supplier or as soon as practicable. In circumstances that make it impossible to return each individual monitoring device within 14 calendar days, such circumstances must be documented and available for review by the agency.

(J)

If an individual monitoring device is lost or damaged, the worker shall cease work immediately until a replacement individual monitoring device is provided and the exposure is calculated for the time period from issuance to loss or damage of the individual monitoring device. The results of the calculated exposure and the time period for which the individual monitoring device was lost or damaged shall be included in the records maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(8) of this section.

(3)

Pocket dosimeters or electronic personal dosimeters shall be checked for correct response to radiation at periods not to exceed one year. Acceptable dosimeters shall read within plus or minus 20% of the true radiation exposure.

(4)

Each alarming ratemeter shall:

(A)

be checked without being exposed to radiation prior to use at the start of each work shift, to ensure that the audible alarm is functioning properly;

(B)

be set to give an alarm signal at a preset dose rate of 500 mrem/hr (5 mSv/hr) or lower with an accuracy of plus or minus 20% of the true radiation dose rate;

(C)

require special means to change the preset alarm function; and

(D)

be calibrated for correct response to radiation at intervals not to exceed one year.

(5)

The following records required by this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(8) of this section.

(A)

Records of pocket dosimeter response.

(B)

Records of pocket dosimeter and electronic personal dosimeter readings of personnel exposures.

(6)

The following records required by this subsection shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(8) of this section.

(A)

Records of alarming ratemeter calibrations.

(B)

Records of individual monitoring device monitoring results received from the individual monitoring device processor.

(r)

Access control.

(1)

During each industrial radiographic operation, radiographic personnel shall maintain visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a radiation area or high radiation area, except at permanent radiographic installations where all entryways are locked and the requirements of subsection (j) of this section are met.

(2)

Radiographic exposure devices shall not be left unattended except when in storage or physically secured against unauthorized removal or tampering.

(s)

Posting. All areas in which industrial radiography is being performed shall be posted conspicuously in accordance with §289.202 of this title including the following.

(1)

Radiation areas. Each radiation area shall be posted conspicuously with a sign(s) displaying the radiation caution symbol and the words "CAUTION, RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER, RADIATION AREA."

(2)

High radiation area. Each high radiation area shall be posted conspicuously with a sign(s) displaying the radiation caution symbol and the words "CAUTION, HIGH RADIATION AREA" or "DANGER, HIGH RADIATION AREA."

(3)

Whenever practicable, ropes and/or barriers shall be used in addition to appropriate signs to designate areas in accordance with §289.202(n)(1) of this title and to help prevent unauthorized entry.

(4)

During pipeline industrial radiographic operations, sufficient radiation signs and other barriers shall be posted to prevent unmonitored individuals from entering the area in accordance with §289.202(n)(1) of this title.

(5)

In lieu of the requirements of subsection (s)(1) and (2) of this section, a restricted area may be established in accordance with §289.202(n)(1) of this title and be posted in accordance with subsection (s)(1) and (2) of this section, for example, both signs may be posted at the same location at the boundary of the restricted area.

(6)

Exceptions listed in §289.202(bb) of this title do not apply to industrial radiographic operations.

(t)

Specific requirements for radiographic personnel performing industrial radiography.

(1)

At a job site, the following shall be supplied by the licensee or registrant:

(A)

at least one operable, calibrated survey instrument for each exposure device or radiation machine in use;

(B)

an individual monitoring device that meets the requirements of §289.202(p)(3) of this title for each worker;

(C)

an operable, calibrated pocket dosimeter or electronic personal dosimeter with a range of zero to 200 mrem (2 mSv) for each worker;

(D)

an operable, calibrated, alarming ratemeter for each worker; and

(E)

the appropriate barrier ropes and signs.

(2)

Each radiographer at a job site shall carry a valid certification ID card issued by the agency or another certifying entity whose certification offers the same or comparable certification standards.

(3)

Each radiographer trainee at a job site shall carry a trainee status card issued by the agency or equivalent documentation in accordance with subsection (m)(1) of this section.

(4)

Radiographic personnel shall not perform radiographic operations if any of the items in paragraphs (1)-(3) of this subsection are not available at the job site or are inoperable. Radiographic personnel shall ensure that the items listed in paragraph (1) of this subsection, radiographic exposure devices, and radiation machines are used in accordance with the requirements of this section.

(5)

During an inspection by the agency, an agency inspector may terminate an operation if any of the items in paragraphs (1)-(3) of this subsection are not available and operable or if the required number of radiographic personnel are not present. Operations shall not be resumed until all required conditions are met.

(u)

Radiation safety requirements for the use of radiation machines.

(1)

Locking of radiation machines. The control panel of each radiation machine shall be equipped with a locking device that will prevent the unauthorized use of an x-ray system or the accidental production of radiation. The radiation machine shall be kept locked and the key removed at all times except when under the direct visual surveillance of a radiographer.

(2)

Permanent storage precautions for the use of radiation machines. Radiation machines shall be secured while in storage to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized individuals.

(3)

Requirements for radiation machines used in industrial radiographic operations.

(A)

Equipment used in industrial radiographic operations involving radiation machines manufactured after October 1, 1987, shall be certified at the time of manufacture to meet the criteria set forth by ANSI N537-1976, except accelerators used in industrial radiography.

(B)

The registrant's name and city or town where the main business office is located shall be prominently displayed with a durable, legible, clearly visible label(s) on both sides of all vehicles used to transport radiation machines for temporary job site use.

(4)

Operating and internal audit requirements for the use of radiation machines.

(A)

Each registrant shall conduct an internal audit program to ensure that the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the certificate of registration, and the registrant's operating, safety, and emergency procedures are followed by radiographic personnel.

(B)

Each radiographer's and radiographer trainee's performance during an actual radiographic operation shall be audited and documented at intervals not to exceed six months.

(C)

If a radiographer or a radiographer trainee has not participated in a radiographic operation during the six months since the last audit, the radiographer or the radiographer trainee shall demonstrate knowledge of the training requirements of subsection (n)(1) of this section by an oral or written and practical examination administered by the registrant before the individual can next participate in a radiographic operation.

(D)

The agency may consider alternatives in those situations where the individual serves as both radiographer and RSO.

(E)

In those operations where a single individual serves as both radiographer and RSO and performs all radiography operations, an audit program is not required.

(F)

The registrant shall provide annual refresher safety training, as defined in subsection (c) of this section, for each radiographer trainee, radiographer, or radiographer trainer at intervals not to exceed 12 months.

(G)

No individual, other than a radiographer or a radiographer trainee, who is under the personal supervision of a radiographer trainer, shall manipulate controls or operate radiation machines used in industrial radiographic operations. Only one radiographer is required to operate radiation machines during industrial radiography.

(H)

Radiographic operations shall not be conducted at storage sites unless specifically authorized by the certificate of registration.

(I)

Records of audits specified in this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(6)(A) of this section.

(J)

Records of the annual refresher training required by subparagraph (F) of this paragraph shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(7).

(5)

Radiation surveys for the use of radiation machines.

(A)

No industrial radiographic operation shall be conducted unless at least one calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument, as described in subsection (f) of this section, is used for each radiation machine energized.

(B)

A physical radiation survey shall be made after each radiographic exposure using radiation machines to determine that the machine is "off."

(C)

All potential radiation areas where industrial radiographic operations are to be performed shall be posted in accordance with subsection (s) of this section, based on estimated dose rates, before industrial radiographic operations begin. An area survey shall be performed during the first radiographic exposure to confirm that subsection (s) of this section requirements have been met and that unrestricted areas do not have radiation levels in excess of the limits specified in §289.202(n)(1)(B) and (C) of this title.

(D)

Records of the surveys required by subparagraph (C) of this paragraph shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(12) of this section.

(6)

Requirements for radiation machines in enclosed radiography.

(A)

Systems for enclosed radiography, including shielded-room radiography and cabinet x-ray systems not otherwise exempted, shall comply with all applicable requirements of this section.

(B)

Systems for enclosed radiography designed to allow admittance of individuals and systems not otherwise exempted shall be evaluated at intervals not to exceed one year to ensure compliance with the applicable requirements of this section and §289.202(n)(1)-(3) of this title.

(C)

Certified and certifiable cabinet x-ray systems, including those designed to allow admittance of individuals, are exempt from the requirements of this section except that:

(i)

No registrant shall permit any individual to operate a cabinet x-ray system until the individual has received a copy of and instruction in the operating procedures for the unit.

(ii)

Tests for proper operation of interlocks must be conducted and recorded at intervals not to exceed 12 months.

(iii)

The registrant shall perform an evaluation to determine compliance with §289.202(n)(1)-(3) of this title and 21 CFR 1020.40 at intervals not to exceed one year.

(D)

Certified cabinet x-ray systems shall be maintained in compliance with 21 CFR 1020.40 and no modification shall be made to the system unless prior agency approval has been granted in accordance with §289.201(c)(1) of this title.

(E)

Records required by this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(13) of this section.

(7)

Registration requirements for industrial radiographic operations.

(A)

Radiation machines used in industrial radiographic operations shall be registered in accordance with §289.226 of this title.

(B)

In addition to the registration requirements in §289.226(c) and (h) of this title, an application for a certificate of registration shall include the following information:

(i)

a schedule or description of the program for training radiographic personnel that specifies:

(I)

initial training;

(II)

annual refresher training;

(III)

on-the-job training;

(IV)

procedures for administering the oral and written examination to determine the knowledge, understanding, and ability of radiographic personnel to comply with the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the certificate of registration, and the registrant's operating, safety, and emergency procedures; and

(V)

procedures for administering the practical examination to demonstrate competence in the use of sources of radiation, radiographic exposure devices, related handling tools, and radiation survey instruments that may be employed in industrial radiographic assignments.

(ii)

written operating, safety, and emergency procedures, including all items listed in subsection (y)(4) of this section;

(iii)

a description of the internal audit program to ensure that radiographic personnel follow the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the certificate of registration, and the registrant's operating, safety, and emergency procedures at intervals not to exceed six months;

(iv)

a list of permanent radiographic installations, descriptions of permanent storage use sites, and the location(s) where all records required by this section and other sections of this chapter will be maintained. Radiographic equipment shall not be stored or used at a permanent site unless such site is specifically authorized by the certificate of registration. A storage site is permanent if radiation machines are stored at that location and if one or more of the following applies:

(I)

the registrant establishes telephone service that is used for contracting or providing industrial radiographic services for the registrant;

(II)

industrial radiographic services are advertised for or from the site;

(III)

radiation machines stored at that location are used for industrial radiographic operations conducted at other sites; or

(IV)

any registrant conducting radiographic operations or storing radiation machines at any location not listed on the certificate of registration for a period in excess of 90 days in a calendar year, shall notify the agency prior to exceeding the 90 days.

(v)

a description of the organization of the industrial radiographic program, including delegations of authority and responsibility for operation of the radiation safety program; and

(vi)

procedures for verifying and documenting the certification status of radiographers and for ensuring that the certification of individuals acting as radiographers remains valid.

(C)

A certificate of registration will be issued if the requirements of this paragraph of this subsection and §289.226(c) and (h) of this title are met.

(v)

Radiation safety requirements for the use of sealed sources.

(1)

Limits on external radiation levels from storage containers and source changers. The maximum exposure rate limits for storage containers and source changers are 200 mrem/hr (2 mSv/hr) at any exterior surface, and 10 mrem/hr (0.1 mSv/hr) at 1 meter from any exterior surface with the sealed source in the shielded position.

(2)

Locking of radiographic exposure devices, storage containers and source changers.

(A)

Each radiographic exposure device, storage container, and source changer shall have a lock or outer locked container designed to prevent unauthorized or accidental removal or exposure of a sealed source. Each exposure device and source changer shall be kept locked and, if a keyed lock, the key removed at all times except when under the direct visual surveillance of a radiographer or an individual specifically authorized by the agency.

(B)

Each radiographic exposure device, storage container, and source changer shall be locked and the key removed from any keyed lock prior to being transported from one location to another and also prior to being stored at a given location.

(3)

Permanent storage precautions for the use of sealed sources.

(A)

Radiographic exposure devices, source changers, and transport containers that contain sealed sources shall be secured while in storage to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized individuals.

(B)

Radiographic exposure devices, source changers, or transport containers that contain radioactive material may not be stored in residential locations. This section does not apply to storage of radioactive material in a vehicle in transit for use at temporary job sites, if the licensee complies with paragraph (8)(G) of this subsection and if the vehicle does not constitute a permanent storage location as described in paragraph (12)(B)(iv) of this subsection.

(4)

Performance requirements for industrial radiography equipment. Equipment used in industrial radiographic operations shall meet the following minimum criteria.

(A)

Each radiographic exposure device, source assembly, sealed source, and associated equipment shall meet the criteria set forth by ANSI N432-1980.

(i)

All newly manufactured radiographic exposure devices and associated equipment acquired by licensees after September 1, 1993, shall comply with the requirements of this section.

(ii)

All radiographic exposure devices and associated equipment in use after January 1, 1996, shall comply with the requirements of this section.

(iii)

In lieu of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, equipment used in industrial radiographic operations need not comply with §8.9.2(c) of the Endurance Test in ANSI N432-1980, if the prototype equipment has been tested using a torque value representative of the torque that an individual using the radiography equipment can realistically exert on the lever or crankshaft of the drive mechanism.

(B)

Engineering analysis may be submitted by a licensee to demonstrate the applicability of previously performed testing on similar individual radiography equipment components. Upon review, the agency may find this an acceptable alternative to actual testing of the component in accordance with subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(C)

In addition to the requirements specified in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph the following requirements apply to radiographic exposure devices, source changers, source assemblies and sealed sources.

(i)

Radiographic exposure devices intended for use as Type B transport containers shall meet the applicable requirements of §289.257 of this title.

(ii)

Modification of radiographic exposure devices, source changers, source assemblies, and associated equipment is prohibited, unless specifically authorized on the license.

(D)

In addition to the requirements specified in subparagraphs (A)-(C) of this paragraph, radiographic exposure devices, source assemblies, and associated equipment that allow the source to move outside the device shall meet the following criteria:

(i)

The source assembly shall be designed so that the source will not become disconnected if cranked outside the guide tube. The source assembly must be such that it cannot be unintentionally disconnected under normal and reasonably foreseeable abnormal conditions.

(ii)

The drive cable must be positively connected to the source assembly before the source assembly can be driven out of the fully shielded position in a radiographic exposure device or source changer.

(iii)

The radiographic exposure device shall automatically secure the source assembly when it is cranked back into the fully shielded position within the radiographic exposure device. This securing system shall only be released by means of a deliberate operation on the radiographic exposure device.

(iv)

The outlet nipple and drive cable fittings of each radiographic exposure device shall be equipped with safety plugs or covers that will protect the source assembly from damage and from other foreign matter, such as water, mud, or sand, during storage and transportation.

(v)

Each sealed source or source assembly shall have attached to it or engraved on it, a durable, legible, visible label with the words "DANGER. RADIOACTIVE." The label may not interfere with the safe operation of the exposure device or associated equipment.

(vi)

Guide tubes must be used when moving the source out of the radiographic exposure device.

(vii)

Guide tubes other than "J" tubes shall have passed the kinking and crushing tests for control units as specified in ANSI N432-1980.

(viii)

An exposure head, endcap, or similar device designed to prevent the source assembly from extending beyond the end of the guide tube shall be attached to the outermost end of the guide tube during radiographic operations.

(ix)

The guide tube exposure head connection must be able to withstand the tensile test for control units as specified in ANSI N432-1980.

(x)

Source changers shall provide a system for ensuring that the source will not be accidentally withdrawn from the changer when connecting or disconnecting the drive cable to or from a source assembly.

(5)

Leak testing, repair, opening, and replacement of sealed sources and devices. Leak testing, repair, opening, and replacement of sealed sources and devices shall be performed according to the following criteria:

(A)

Leak testing of sealed sources shall be done in accordance with §289.201(g) of this title, except records of leak tests shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(11) of this section.

(B)

The replacement, leak testing analysis, repair, opening, or any modification of a sealed source shall be performed only by persons specifically authorized to do so by the agency, the NRC, or another agreement state.

(C)

Each exposure device using DU shielding and an "S" tube configuration shall be tested for DU contamination.

(i)

Tests for DU contamination shall be performed at intervals not to exceed 12 months.

(ii)

The analysis shall be capable of detecting the presence of 0.005 microcuries (185 Bq) of radioactive material on the test sample and shall be performed by a person specifically authorized by the agency, the NRC, or an agreement state to perform the analysis.

(iii)

Should such testing reveal the presence of DU contamination, the exposure device shall be removed from use until an evaluation of the wear of the S-tube has been made.

(iv)

Should the evaluation reveal that the S-tube is worn through, the device may not be used again.

(v)

DU shielded devices do not have to be tested for DU contamination while in storage and not in use.

(vi)

The device shall be tested for DU contamination before using or transferring such a device, if the interval of storage exceeds 12 months.

(D)

A record of the DU leak test shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(11) of this section.

(6)

Labeling and storage.

(A)

Each transport container shall have permanently attached to it a durable, legible, clearly visible label(s) that has, as a minimum, the standard trefoil radiation caution symbol conventional colors, for example, magenta, purple or black on a yellow background, having a minimum diameter of 25 millimeters, and the following wording "CAUTION. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (OR NAME OF COMPANY)" or "DANGER. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (OR NAME OF COMPANY)." In addition, transport containers shall meet applicable requirements of the DOT.

(B)

Radiographic exposure devices, source changers, and storage containers shall be physically secured to prevent tampering or removal by unauthorized personnel. The licensee shall store radioactive material in a manner that will minimize danger from explosion or fire.

(C)

The licensee shall lock and physically secure the transport package containing radioactive material in the transporting vehicle to prevent accidental loss, tampering, or unauthorized removal.

(D)

The licensee's name and city or town where the main business office is located shall be prominently displayed with a durable, clearly visible label(s) on both sides of all vehicles used to transport radioactive material for temporary job site use.

(E)

The licensee shall ensure that each radiographic exposure device has attached to it a durable, legible, clearly visible label bearing the following:

(i)

chemical symbol and mass number of the radionuclide in the device;

(ii)

activity and the date on which this activity was last measured;

(iii)

manufacturer, model and serial number of the sealed source;

(iv)

licensee's name, address, and telephone number; and

(v)

as a minimum, the standard radiation caution symbol as defined in §289.202 of this title, and the following wording "CAUTION. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL--DO NOT HANDLE. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (OR NAME OF COMPANY)" or "DANGER. RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL--DO NOT HANDLE. NOTIFY CIVIL AUTHORITIES (OR NAME OF COMPANY)."

(F)

Each radiographic exposure device shall have a permanently stamped, legible, and clearly visible unique serial number.

(7)

Operating and internal audit requirements for the use of sealed sources of radiation.

(A)

Each licensee shall conduct an internal audit program to ensure that the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the license, and the licensee's operating, safety, and emergency procedures are followed by radiographic personnel.

(B)

Each radiographer's and radiographer trainee's performance during an actual radiographic operation shall be audited and documented at intervals not to exceed six months.

(C)

If a radiographer or a radiographer trainee has not participated in a radiographic operation during the six months since the last audit, the radiographer or the radiographer trainee shall demonstrate knowledge of the training requirements of subsection (n)(1) of this section by an oral or written and practical examination administered by the licensee before these individuals can next participate in a radiographic operation.

(D)

The agency may consider alternatives in those situations where the individual serves as both radiographer and RSO.

(E)

In those operations where a single individual serves as both radiographer and RSO, and performs all radiography operations, an inspection program is not required.

(F)

Each licensee shall provide annual refresher safety training, as defined in subsection (c) of this section, for each radiographer and radiographer trainee at intervals not to exceed 12 months.

(G)

Each licensee shall provide, as a minimum, two radiographic personnel for each exposure device in use for any industrial radiography conducted at a location other than at a permanent radiographic installation (shielded room, bay, or bunker) meeting the requirements of subsection (j)(1) of this section. If one of the personnel is a radiographer trainee, the other shall be a radiographer trainer authorized by the license.

(H)

Collimators shall be used in industrial radiographic operations that use crank-out devices except when physically impossible.

(I)

No individual other than a radiographer or a radiographer trainee who is under the personal supervision of a radiographer trainer shall manipulate controls or operate radiographic exposure devices and associated equipment used in industrial radiographic operations.

(J)

Radiographic operations shall not be conducted at storage sites unless specifically authorized by the license.

(K)

Records of audits specified in this subsection shall be made and maintained by the licensee in accordance with subsection (w)(6)(B) of this section.

(L)

Records of the annual refresher training required by subparagraph (F) of this paragraph shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(7) of this section.

(8)

Radiation surveys for the use of sealed sources of radiation.

(A)

No industrial radiographic operation shall be conducted unless at least one calibrated and operable radiation survey instrument, as described in subsection (f) of this section, is used at each site where radiographic exposures are made.

(B)

A survey with a radiation survey instrument meeting the requirements of subsection (f)(1)-(3) of this section shall be made after each radiographic exposure to determine that the sealed source has been returned to its fully shielded position, and before exchanging films, repositioning the exposure head, or dismantling equipment. The entire circumference of the radiographic exposure device shall be surveyed. If the radiographic exposure device has a source guide tube, the survey shall also include the source guide tube and any collimator.

(C)

All potential radiation areas where industrial radiographic operations are to be performed shall be posted in accordance with subsection (s) of this section, based on calculated dose rates, before industrial radiographic operations begin. An area survey shall be performed during the first radiographic exposure (for example, with the sealed source in the exposed position) to confirm that the requirements of subsection (s) of this section have been met.

(D)

Each time re-establishment of the restricted area is required, the requirements of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph shall be met.

(E)

The requirements of subparagraph (D) of this paragraph do not apply to pipeline industrial radiographic operations when the conditions of exposure including, but not limited to, the radiographic exposure device, duration of exposure, source strength, pipe size, and pipe thickness remain constant.

(F)

A lock-out survey, in which all accessible surfaces of the radiographic exposure device or source changer are surveyed, shall be performed.

(G)

Surveys shall be performed on storage containers to ensure that radiation levels do not exceed the limits specified in §289.202(n)(1) of this title. These surveys shall be performed initially with the maximum amount of radioactive material present in the storage location and thereafter at the time of the quarterly inventory and whenever storage conditions change.

(H)

A survey meeting the requirements of subparagraph (B) of this paragraph shall be performed on the radiographic exposure device and the source changer after every sealed source exchange.

(I)

Records of the surveys required by subparagraphs (C), (D), and (F)-(H) of this paragraph shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(12) of this section.

(9)

Requirements for sealed sources in enclosed radiography.

(A)

Systems for enclosed radiography, including shielded-room radiography not otherwise exempted, shall comply with all applicable requirements of this section.

(B)

Systems for enclosed radiography designed to allow admittance of individuals and systems not otherwise exempted shall be evaluated at intervals not to exceed one year to ensure compliance with the applicable requirements of this section and §289.202(n)(1)-(3) of this title.

(C)

Tests for proper operation of interlocks must be conducted and recorded in accordance with subsection (j) of this section.

(D)

Records required by this subsection shall be made and maintained in accordance with subsection (w)(14) of this section.

(10)

Underwater, offshore platform, and lay-barge radiography.

(A)

Underwater, offshore platform, and/or lay-barge radiography shall not be performed unless specifically authorized in a license issued by the agency in accordance with subsection (v)(12) of this section.

(B)

In addition to the other requirements of this section, the following requirements apply to the performance of offshore platform or lay-barge radiography.

(i)

Cobalt-60 sources with activities in excess of 20 curies (nominal) and iridium-192 sources with activities in excess of 100 curies (nominal) shall not be used in the performance of offshore platform or lay-barge radiography.

(ii)

Collimators shall be used for all industrial radiographic operations performed on offshore platforms or lay-barges.

(11)

Prohibitions.

(A)

Industrial radiography performed with a sealed source that is not fastened to or contained in a radiographic exposure device (fishpole technique) is prohibited unless specifically authorized in a license issued by the agency.

(B)

Retrieval of disconnected sources or sources that cannot be returned by normal means to a fully shielded position or automatically secured in the radiographic exposure device, shall not be performed unless specifically authorized by a license condition.

(12)

Licensing requirements for industrial radiographic operations.

(A)

Sealed sources used in industrial radiographic operations shall be licensed in accordance with §289.252 of this title.

(B)

In addition to the licensing requirements in §289.252 of this title, an application for a license shall include the following information.

(i)

A schedule or description of the program for training radiographic personnel that specifies:

(I)

initial training;

(II)

annual refresher training;

(III)

on-the-job training;

(IV)

procedures for administering the oral and written examinations to determine the knowledge, understanding, and ability of radiographic personnel to comply with the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the license, and the licensee's operating, safety, and emergency procedures; and

(V)

procedures for administering the practical examination to demonstrate competence in the use of sources of radiation, radiographic exposure devices, related handling tools, and radiation survey instruments that may be employed in industrial radiographic assignments.

(ii)

Written operating, safety, and emergency procedures, including all items listed in subsection (y)(4) of this section.

(iii)

A description of the internal audit program to ensure that radiographic personnel follow the requirements of this chapter, the conditions of the license, and the licensee's operating, safety, and emergency procedures at intervals not to exceed six months.

(iv)

A list of permanent radiographic installations, descriptions of permanent storage and use sites, and the location(s) where all records required by this section and other sections of this chapter will be maintained. If records are to be maintained at a headquarters office in Texas and no use or storage is authorized for the site, this site will be designated as the main site. Radioactive material shall not be stored or used at a permanent use site unless such site is specifically authorized by the license. Any licensee conducting radiographic operations or storing radioactive material at any location not listed on the license for a period in excess of 90 days in a calendar year, shall notify the agency prior to exceeding the 90 days. A storage site is permanent if radioactive material is stored at that location and if any one or more of the following applies:

(I)

the licensee establishes telephone service that is used for contracting or providing industrial radiographic services for the licensee;

(II)

industrial radiographic services are advertised for or from the site;

(III)

radioactive material stored at that location is used for industrial radiographic operations conducted at other sites; or

(IV)

any licensee conducting radiographic operations or storing radioactive material at any location not listed on the license for a period in excess of 90 days in a calendar year.

(v)

A description of the organization of the industrial radiographic program, including delegations of authority and responsibility for operation of the radiation safety program.

(vi)

A description of the program for inspection and maintenance of radiographic exposure devices and transport and storage containers (including items in subsection (y)(2) of this section and the applicable items in subsection (i) of this section).

(vii)

If a license application includes underwater radiography, as a minimum a description of:

(I)

radiation safety procedures and radiographer responsibilities unique to the performance of underwater radiography;

(II)

radiographic equipment and radiation safety equipment unique to underwater radiography; and

(III)

methods for gas-tight encapsulation of equipment.

(viii)

If a license application includes offshore platform and/or lay-barge radiography, as a minimum a description of:

(I)

transport procedures for radioactive material to be used in industrial radiographic operations;

(II)

storage facilities for radioactive material; and

(III)

methods for restricting access to radiation areas.

(C)

Procedures for verifying and documenting the certification status of radiographers and for ensuring that the certification of individuals acting as radiographers remains valid.

(D)

If a licensee intends to perform leak testing of sealed sources or exposure devices containing DU shielding, the licensee shall describe the procedures for performing the leak test.

(E)

If the licensee intends to analyze its own wipe samples, the application shall include a description of the procedures to be followed. The description shall include at least the following:

(i)

instruments to be used;

(ii)

methods of performing the analysis; and

(iii)

pertinent experience of the person who will analyze the wipe samples.

(F)

If the licensee intends to perform "in-house" calibrations of survey instruments, the licensee shall describe methods to be used and the relevant experience of the person(s) who will perform the calibrations.

(G)

A license will be issued if the requirements of this paragraph of this subsection and §289.252 of this title are met.

(w)

Record keeping requirements.

(1)

Records of receipt, transfer, and disposal of sources of radiation and devices using DU for shielding.

(A)

Each licensee and registrant shall maintain records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of sources of radiation and devices using DU for shielding as required by subsection (e) of this section for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency.

(B)

These records shall include the following, as appropriate:

(i)

date of receipt, transfer, or disposal;

(ii)

name of the individual making the record;

(iii)

radionuclide;

(iv)

number of curies (becquerels) or mass (for DU); and

(v)

manufacturer, model, and serial number of each source of radiation and/or device.

(2)

Records of radiation survey instruments. Each licensee and registrant shall maintain records of the calibrations required by subsection (f)(2) of this section for agency inspection for two years after the calibration date.

(3)

Records of quarterly inventory.

(A)

Each licensee and registrant shall maintain records of the quarterly inventory of sources of radiation, including devices containing DU as required by subsection (g) of this section for agency inspection for two years from the date of the inventory.

(B)

The record shall include the following for each source of radiation, as appropriate:

(i)

manufacturer, model, and serial number;

(ii)

radionuclide;

(iii)

number of curies (except for depleted uranium);

(iv)

location of each source of radiation;

(v)

date of the inventory; and

(vi)

name of the individual making the inventory.

(4)

Records of inspection and maintenance of radiation machines, radiographic exposure devices, transport and storage containers, associated equipment, source changers, and survey instruments.

(A)

Each licensee and registrant shall maintain records specified in subsection (i)(3) of this section of equipment problems found in daily checks and quarterly inspections of:

(i)

radiographic exposure devices;

(ii)

transport and storage containers;

(iii)

associated equipment;

(iv)

source changers;

(v)

survey instruments; and

(vi)

radiation machines.

(B)

The record shall include the following:

(i)

date of check or inspection;

(ii)

name of inspector;

(iii)

equipment involved;

(iv)

any problems found; and

(v)

what repairs or maintenance, if any, were done.

(C)

Each record shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years from the date of the inspection.

(5)

Records of alarm systems and entrance control tests at permanent radiographic installations. Each licensee and registrant shall maintain records of alarm system and entrance control device tests required by subsection (j) of this section for agency inspection for two years from the date of the test.

(6)

Records of operating and internal audit requirements.

(A)

Records of operating and internal audit requirements for the use of radiation machines specified by subsection (u)(4) of this section shall be maintained by the registrant for agency inspection for two years from the date of the audit.

(B)

Records of operating and internal audit requirements for the use of sealed sources specified by subsection (v)(7) of this section shall be maintained by the licensee for agency inspection for two years from the date of the audit.

(7)

Records of training and certification.

(A)

Each licensee and registrant shall maintain for agency inspection the following clear and legible training and certification records that demonstrate that the applicable requirements of subsections (m)(1)(A) and (2)(A) and (n) of this section are met for all industrial radiographic personnel for agency inspection. A copy of the trainee status card will satisfy the documentation requirements of subsection (m)(1)(A) of this section. A copy of the certification ID card will satisfy the documentation requirements of subsection (m)(2)(A) of this section.

(i)

Records of training shall include the following:

(I)

radiographer certification documents and verification of certification status;

(II)

copies of written tests administered by the licensee or registrant;

(III)

dates of oral and practical examinations and names of individuals conducting and receiving the oral and practical examinations; and

(IV)

a list of items tested and the results of the oral and practical examinations.

(ii)

Records of annual refresher safety training and audits of job performance made in accordance with subsections (u)(4) and (v)(7) of this section shall include the following:

(I)

list the topics discussed during the refresher safety training;

(II)

dates the annual refresher safety training was conducted;

(III)

names of the instructors and attendees; and

(IV)

for audits of job performance, the records shall also include a list showing the items checked and any non-compliance observed by the RSO or designee.

(B)

Records required by subsections (m)(1)(A) and (2)(A) and (n)(1) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years after the record is made.

(C)

Records of the annual refresher training required by subsections (u)(4)(F) and (v)(7)(F) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years after the record is made.

(8)

Records of personnel monitoring procedures. Each licensee and registrant shall maintain the following exposure records specified in subsection (q) of this section.

(A)

Direct-reading pocket dosimeter or electronic personal dosimeter readings and yearly operational checks required by subsection (q) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years. If the dosimeter readings were used to determine external radiation dose (for example, no individual monitoring device exposure records exist), the records shall be maintained for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency.

(B)

Records of alarming ratemeter calibrations shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years.

(C)

Reports received from the individual monitoring device processor shall be maintained for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency.

(D)

Records of estimates of exposures as a result of off-scale personal direct-reading dosimeters, or lost or damaged individual monitoring devices, shall be maintained for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency.

(9)

Records and documents required at additional authorized use/storage sites.

(A)

Each licensee or registrant maintaining additional authorized use/storage sites where industrial radiography operations are performed shall have copies of the following records and documents specific to that site available at each site for inspection by the agency:

(i)

a copy of the appropriate license or certificate of registration authorizing the use of licensed or registered sources of radiation;

(ii)

operating, safety, and emergency procedures in accordance with subsection (y)(4) of this section;

(iii)

applicable sections of this chapter as listed in the license or certificate of registration;

(iv)

records of receipt, transfer, and disposal of sources of radiation and devices using DU for shielding at the additional site in accordance with subsection (e) of this section;

(v)

records of the latest survey instrument calibrations in use at the site in accordance with subsection (f) of this section;

(vi)

records of the latest calibrations of alarming ratemeters and operational checks of pocket dosimeters and/or electronic personal dosimeters in accordance with subsection (q) of this section;

(vii)

inventories in accordance with subsection (g) of this section;

(viii)

utilization records for each radiographic exposure device and radiation machine dispatched from that location in accordance with subsection (h) of this section;

(ix)

records of equipment problems identified in daily checks of equipment in accordance with subsection (i) of this section, if applicable;

(x)

records of alarm systems and entrance control checks in accordance with subsection (j) of this section;

(xi)

training records in accordance with subsection (n) of this section;

(xii)

records of direct-reading dosimeter readings in accordance with subsection (q) of this section;

(xiii)

audits in accordance with subsections (u)(4)(A)-(C) and (v)(7)(A)-(C) of this section;

(xiv)

latest radiation survey records in accordance with subsections (u)(5)(D) and (v)(8)(J) of this section;

(xv)

records of interlock testing in accordance with subsections (u)(6)(C)(ii) and (v)(9)(C) of this section;

(xvi)

records of annual evaluation of cabinet x-ray systems in accordance with subsection (u)(6)(C)(iii) of this section;

(xvii)

records of leak tests for specific devices and sources at the additional site in accordance with subsection (v)(5) of this section;

(xviii)

shipping papers for the transportation of sources of radiation in accordance with §289.257 of this title; and

(xix)

a copy of the agreement state license or certificate of registration authorizing the use of sources of radiation, when operating under reciprocity in accordance with §289.226 of this title and §289.252 of this title.

(B)

Records required in accordance with this subsection shall be maintained for agency inspection for a period of two years.

(C)

Records required in accordance with this subsection shall also be maintained at the main authorized site.

(10)

Records required at temporary job sites. Each licensee and registrant conducting industrial radiography at a temporary job site shall have the following records available at that site for agency inspection:

(A)

a copy of the appropriate license or certificate of registration or equivalent document authorizing the use of sources of radiation;

(B)

operating, safety, and emergency procedures in accordance with subsection (y)(4) of this section;

(C)

applicable sections of this chapter as listed in the license or certificate of registration;

(D)

latest radiation survey records required in accordance with subsections (u)(5)(D) and (v)(8)(I) of this section for the period of operation at the site;

(E)

the daily pocket dosimeter records for the period of operation at the site;

(F)

utilization records for each radiographic exposure device or radiation machine dispatched from that location in accordance with subsection (h) of this section; and

(G)

the latest instrument calibration and leak test records for devices at the site. Acceptable records include tags or labels that are attached to the devices or survey instruments and decay charts for sources that have been manufactured within the last six months.

(11)

Records of leak testing of sealed sources and devices containing DU. Each licensee shall maintain records of leak testing of sealed sources and devices containing DU required by subsection (v)(5) of this section for agency inspection for two years from the date of the leak test.

(12)

Records of radiation surveys. Records of the surveys required by subsections (u)(5) and (v)(8) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years after completion of the survey. If a survey was used to determine an individual's exposure due to loss of personnel monitoring data, the records of the survey shall be maintained for agency inspection until disposal is authorized by the agency.

(13)

Records of requirements for radiation machines in enclosed radiography.

(A)

Records of evaluations required by subsection (u)(6)(B) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years from the date of the evaluation.

(B)

Records of operating instructions in cabinet x-ray systems required by subsection (u)(6)(C)(i) of this section and interlock tests required by subsection (u)(6)(C)(ii) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years from the date of the test.

(C)

Records of evaluation of certified cabinet x-ray systems required by subsection (u)(6)(C)(iii) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years from the date of the evaluation.

(14)

Records of requirements for sealed sources in enclosed radiography.

(A)

Records of evaluations required by subsection (v)(9)(B) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years after the evaluation.

(B)

Records of interlock tests required by subsection (v)(9)(C) of this section shall be maintained for agency inspection for two years from the date of the test.

(15)

Records of utilization logs. Records of utilization logs shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years from the date the utilization log is made.

(x)

Form of records.

(1)

Each record required by this section shall be legible throughout the specified retention period.

(2)

The record shall be the original or a reproduced copy or a microform provided that the copy or microform is authenticated by authorized personnel and that the microform is capable of reproducing a clear copy throughout the required retention period.

(3)

The record may also be stored in electronic media with the capability for producing legible, accurate, and complete records during the required retention period.

(4)

Records, such as letters, drawings, and specifications, shall include all pertinent information, such as stamps, initials, and signatures.

(5)

The licensee or registrant shall maintain adequate safeguards against tampering with and loss of records.

(y)

Appendices.

(1)

Subjects to be included in training courses for radiographer trainees. Training provided to qualify individuals as radiographer trainees in compliance with subsection (m)(1)(A) of this section shall be presented on a formal basis. The training shall include the following subjects.

(A)

Fundamentals of radiation safety to include the following:

(i)

characteristics of radiation;

(ii)

units of radiation dose in rems (sieverts) and quantity of radioactivity in curies (becquerels);

(iii)

significance of radiation dose to include:

(I)

radiation protection standards;

(II)

biological effects of radiation dose;

(III)

hazards of exposure to radiation; and

(IV)

case histories of radiography accidents;

(iv)

levels of radiation from sources of radiation; and

(v)

methods of controlling radiation dose to include:

(I)

working time;

(II)

working distances; and

(III)

shielding.

(B)

Radiation detection instrumentation to include the following:

(i)

use, operation, calibration and limitations of radiation survey instruments;

(ii)

survey techniques; and

(iii)

use of individual monitoring devices to include as a minimum:

(I)

film badges;

(II)

TLDs;

(III)

OSLs;

(IV)

pocket dosimeters;

(V)

alarming ratemeters; and

(VI)

electronic personal dosimeters.

(C)

Radiographic equipment to be used including the following:

(i)

remote handling equipment;

(ii)

operation and control of radiographic exposure devices and sealed sources, including pictures or models of source assemblies (pigtails);

(iii)

storage and transport containers, source changers;

(iv)

operation and control of x-ray equipment;

(v)

collimators;

(vi)

storage, control, and disposal of radioactive material; and

(vii)

inspection and maintenance of equipment.

(D)

Requirements of pertinent federal and state regulations.

(E)

Generic written operating, safety, and emergency procedures (see subsection (y)(4) of this section).

(2)

General requirements for inspection of industrial radiographic equipment.

(A)

Radiographic exposure devices shall be inspected for:

(i)

abnormal surface radiation levels anywhere on camera, collimator, or guide tube;

(ii)

condition of safety plugs;

(iii)

proper operation of locking mechanism;

(iv)

condition of pigtail connector;

(v)

condition of carrying device (straps, handle, etc.); and

(vi)

proper and legible labeling.

(B)

Source tubes shall be inspected for:

(i)

rust, dirt, or sludge buildup inside the source tube;

(ii)

condition of source tube connector;

(iii)

condition of source stop;

(iv)

kinks or damage that could prevent proper operation; and

(v)

presence of radioactive contamination.

(C)

Control cables and drive mechanisms shall be inspected for:

(i)

proper drive mechanism with camera, as appropriate;

(ii)

changes in general operating characteristics;

(iii)

condition of connector on drive cable;

(iv)

drive cable flexibility, wear, and rust;

(v)

excessive wear or damage to crank assembly parts;

(vi)

damage to drive cable conduit that could prevent the cable from moving freely;

(vii)

proper connector mating between the drive cable and the pigtail;

(viii)

proper operation of source position indicator, if applicable; and

(ix)

presence of radioactive contamination.

(D)

Pipeliners shall be inspected for:

(i)

abnormal surface radiation;

(ii)

changes in the general operating characteristics of the unit;

(iii)

proper operation of shutter mechanism;

(iv)

chafing or binding of shutter mechanism;

(v)

damage to the device that might impair its operation;

(vi)

proper operation of locking mechanism;

(vii)

proper drive mechanism with camera, as appropriate;

(viii)

condition of carrying device (strap, handle, etc.); and

(ix)

proper and legible labeling.

(E)

X-ray equipment shall be inspected for:

(i)

change in the general operating characteristics of the unit;

(ii)

wear of electrical cables and connectors;

(iii)

proper and legible labeling of console;

(iv)

proper console with machine, as appropriate;

(v)

proper operation of locking mechanism;

(vi)

proper operation of timer run-down cutoff; and

(vii)

damage to tube head housing that might result in excessive radiation levels.

(3)

Time requirements for record keeping. The following are time requirements for record keeping.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.255(y)(3)

(4)

Operating, safety, and emergency procedures. The licensee's or registrant's operating, safety, and emergency procedures shall include instructions in at least the following:

(A)

handling and use of sources of radiation for industrial radiography such that no individual is likely to be exposed to radiation doses that exceed the limits established in §289.202 of this title;

(B)

methods and occasions for conducting radiation surveys, including lock-out survey requirements;

(C)

methods for controlling access to industrial radiography areas;

(D)

methods and occasions for locking and securing sources of radiation;

(E)

personnel monitoring and the use of personnel monitoring equipment, including steps to be taken immediately by industrial radiographic personnel in the event a pocket dosimeter is found to be off-scale (see subsection (q)(2)(F) of this section);

(F)

methods of transporting equipment to field locations, including packing of sources of radiation in the vehicles, placarding of vehicles, and controlling of sources of radiation during transportation (including applicable DOT requirements);

(G)

methods or procedures for minimizing exposure of individuals in the event of an accident, including procedures for a disconnect accident, a transportation accident, and loss of a sealed source;

(H)

procedures for notifying proper personnel in the event of an accident;

(I)

specific posting requirements;

(J)

maintenance of records (see subsection (y)(3) of this section);

(K)

inspection, maintenance, and operational checks of radiographic exposure devices, source changers, storage containers, transport containers, source guide tubes, crank-out devices, and radiation machines;

(L)

method of testing and training in accordance with subsections (m) and (n) of this section; and

(M)

source recovery procedures if the licensee is authorized to perform source recovery.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901709

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter C. Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation

25 TAC §289.125

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of §289.125 concerning licensing requirements for near-surface land disposal of radioactive waste without changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12145). Therefore, the section will not be republished. The section for repeal adopts by reference Part 45, titled "Licensing Requirements for Near-Surface Land Disposal of Radioactive Waste" of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation .

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.125 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section no longer exist.

The regulation of the disposal of radioactive waste is under the jurisdiction of the Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission (TNRCC). TNRCC has now adopted rules for near-surface land disposal of radioactive waste.

The department published a Notice of Intention to Review for §289.125 as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 9079) on September 4, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

No comments were received on the proposal during the comment period.

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for its procedure and for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901683

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Chapter 289. Radiation Control

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of existing §289.127, without changes and new §289.259, concerning licensing requirements for naturally occurring radioactive material (NORM) with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12145), as a result of comments received during the 30-day comment period. The repeal of §289.127 is adopted without changes and therefore will not be republished.

The General Appropriations Act, House Bill 1, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature, requires that each state agency review and consider for readoption each rule adopted by that agency pursuant to the Government Code, Chapter 2001 (Administrative Procedure Act). Section 289.127 has been reviewed and the department has determined that the reasons for adopting the section continue to exist; however, a new rule was proposed. The department published a Notice of Intention to Review the section as required by Rider 167 in the Texas Register (23 TexReg 9079) on September 4, 1998. No comments were received by the department on this section.

The repealed section adopts by reference Part 46, titled "Licensing of Naturally Occurring Radioactive Material (NORM)" of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation . The new section incorporates language from Part 46 that has been rewritten into Texas Register format and includes the addition and revision of subsections of the section. The repeal and new section are part of the renumbering phase in the process of rewriting the department's radiation rules in the Texas Register format. The new section reflects the new numbering. The revision is part of the department's ongoing review of the radiation rules to update them in accordance with current practices and technologies.

The new section includes new definitions that support the changes in the rule. It redefines exemptions for oil and gas NORM waste and clarifies exemptions for pipe (tubulars) and other downhole or surface equipment contaminated with NORM. Specific licensing requirements for spinning pipe gauge operations that perform NORM decontamination and for persons receiving NORM waste from other persons for processing or storage are added. Other minor grammatical changes are made to the section for clarification.

The department is making the following change due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning §289.259(d)(3), the department added the words "downhole or surface" to clarify the intent of the rule.

Change: Concerning §289.259(h)(2), the department reworded the paragraph to read "records of transfers for disposal shall be maintained for inspection by the agency" to clarify the intent of the rule.

Change: Concerning §289.259(u), the department deleted the words "any agreement state, or" since NORM is not covered under the Atomic Energy Act and NORM licenses are not necessarily issued by agreement states.

The following comments were received concerning the proposed section. Following the comments are the department's responses.

Comment: Concerning the rule in general, the commenter stated that his company did not agree with the estimate of the cost of implementing the proposed regulations. The commenter has found NORM, primarily radon and its daughters, to be ubiquitous in pipelines and chemical plants on the Gulf Coast. Most maintenance activities will involve handling of materials contaminated with this NORM, and thus will create additional pathways for exposure than are found in daily operations.

The commenter believes that there would be a significant cost to bring in a person specifically licensed to decontaminate equipment and facilities and potential ancillary cost to the delay in proceeding with the maintenance. The commenter suggested permitting this activity by the general licensee's employees and contractors who are appropriately trained and monitored.

Response: The department's responsibility is to protect public health and safety and the department is concerned about the radiation exposure risk associated with certain activities that are considered "routine maintenance" by the persons affected by this rule. The affected industry has indicated that they consider "routine maintenance" to be the repair and maintenance of equipment for the purpose of restoring it to its intended use or efficiency, regardless of the presence of oil and gas NORM. Decontamination of equipment contaminated with NORM above the exempt limits may occur incidental to the routine maintenance. The department acknowledges, however, that not all routine maintenance activities result in a significant increase in radiation exposure risk. Simple routine maintenance tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, or "pigging" a pipe are such activities.

The wording in subsection (f)(2), "Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine," was proposed in order to further define the risk the department is concerned about. In discussions with the industry, the department determined that the activity that presents the most concern is vessel entry. The industry considers this to be routine maintenance. However, this is the type of operation that the department believes presents a significantly increased risk from an enclosed environment where an inhalation risk (a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations) from NORM can be present.

The department acknowledges that unlike the employees of a company specifically licensed to perform decontamination, the employees or contractors of a general license would be performing vessel entry on an infrequent basis and thus, the radiation exposure risk is lowered due to a time factor.

The department plans to draft language that will outline radiation safety precautions that must be followed when vessel entry is conducted during the course of routine maintenance, but wishes to seek further input from the industry on that draft language. However, in order for several of the revisions of this section supported by commenters to become effective and for the section to be reformatted in Texas Register format, no change was made at this time as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(a), the commenter stated that the term "disposal," as is used throughout the section, seems to be misleading and the commenter believes that it may confuse the average reader regarding the agency's statutory jurisdictional authority over NORM. The commenter suggested that subsection (a) be rewritten to clearly state that the regulations do not apply to operators of disposal facilities and that they apply only to generators. The regulated public should be referred to the applicable regulations of the Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission (TNRCC) and the Railroad Commission of Texas (RCT) for disposal requirements.

Response: This section is not intended to regulate the disposal of radioactive substances and this subsection states that. To further clarify the jurisdiction, a sentence was added to the end of this subsection to read, "The Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission (TNRCC) has the jurisdiction to regulate disposal of NORM, other than oil and gas NORM, which is under the jurisdiction of the Railroad Commission of Texas (RCT)."

Comment: Concerning §289.259(b)(2), the commenter stated that criteria are needed to define when NORM is not contained in a product at a significant level. Some natural gas extracted in Texas contains radon gas. Components of the natural gas are separated and used in chemical industries, inadvertently enhancing the concentration of radon in the natural gas product which would then be considered NORM as defined in these regulations. Anything derived from this natural gas product then potentially contains NORM. These materials are used in a variety of products, some of which are consumed by humans and livestock. The commenter is concerned that by the wording used, production of these products would not be permitted. The commenter suggested a permissible concentration be defined at which the NORM is not considered a significant risk for any use of the material. The commenter cited the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) criteria for radioisotopes in drinking water as an example.

Response: The natural gas and natural gas products are exempted from the requirements of this section as stated in subsection (d)(7). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c), the commenter stated that even though the department has dropped the definition of "technologically enhanced," it is still used in subsection (c)(4) of this section and also in subsection (d)(1)(A)(i), (d)(1)(B)(i) and (ii) of this section. The commenter questioned the reason for dropping this definition.

Response: The department deleted the words "technologically enhanced" from subsection (c)(4) and replaced them with the word "concentrated" to clarify the definition. The words "technologically enhanced" were deleted from subsection (d)(1)(A)(i) and (d)(1)(B)(i) and (ii) because they were unnecessary.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c), the commenter questioned the deletion of the definition of technologically enhanced naturally occurring radioactive material (TENORM). The commenter stated that the agency has chosen to define TENORM as NORM and naturally occurring radioactive material as not NORM, and found this confusing.

Response: The department deleted the words "technologically enhanced" from subsection (c)(4) and replaced them with the word "concentrated" to clarify the definition. The words "technologically enhanced" were deleted from subsection (d)(1)(A)(i) and (d)(1)(B)(i) and (ii) because they were unnecessary.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c), the commenter suggested adding a definition for "spinning pipe gauge."

Response: A spinning pipe gauge licensee is one who uses gauges containing radioactive material for measuring the thickness of pipe. Those licensees have already been made aware of this requirement through notification letters and license condition amendments. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c), the commenter suggested adding definitions for "contractor" and "pipe" as to their meaning in this section. The commenter stated that some contractors are hired to perform a function and the contractor's employees are not under the direct supervision of the principal organizations. In another use of contractor, a contractor is an individual working for the principal organizations in much the same sense as an employee, except the term of service is usually limited and the contractor is not subject to the usual employee benefits.

Response: The general licensee has the responsibility for ensuring NORM requirements for decontamination are met whether the work is performed by its employees or contractors. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c)(3), the commenter suggested the word "person" be defined. The commenter questioned whether the definition meant that a corporation can intentionally remove contamination from their equipment and it would not be considered decontamination; whether the employee is permanent or temporary and what about if the employee is hired through an intermediary (e.g. temporary service providers such as Kelly Services).

Response: The word "person" as used in this section is defined in §289.201(b)(68) of this chapter. The agency added a new paragraph (c)(6) to address the definition of person. The subsequent paragraphs are renumbered. Change is reflected in §289.259(c)(6)-(8).

Comment: Concerning §289.259(c)(3), the commenter is concerned with this definition because the rule implies that any contract worker must be specifically licensed to perform NORM decontamination and remediation. The commenter suggested the definition be reworded so that it is clear that decontamination relates to the removal of NORM because of its radioactivity and does not apply to the removal of NORM scale or sludge for the purpose of returning that equipment to its intended use or for efficiency.

Response: The department's responsibility is to protect public health and safety and the department is concerned about the radiation exposure risk associated with certain activities that are considered "routine maintenance" by the persons affected by this rule. The affected industry has indicated that they consider "routine maintenance" to be the repair and maintenance of equipment for the purpose of restoring it to its intended use or efficiency, regardless of the presence of oil and gas NORM. Decontamination of equipment contaminated with NORM above the exempt limits may occur incidental to the routine maintenance. The department acknowledges, however, that not all routine maintenance activities result in a significant increase in radiation exposure risk. Simple routine maintenance tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, or "pigging" a pipe are such activities.

The wording in subsection (f)(2), "Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine," was proposed in order to further define the risk the department is concerned about. In discussions with the industry, the department determined that the activity that presents the most concern is vessel entry. The industry considers this to be routine maintenance. However, this is the type of operation that the department believes presents a significantly increased risk from an enclosed environment where an inhalation risk (a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations) from NORM can be present.

The department acknowledges that unlike the employees of a company specifically licensed to perform decontamination, the employees or contractors of a general license would be performing vessel entry on an infrequent basis and thus, the radiation exposure risk is lowered due to a time factor.

The department plans to draft language that will outline radiation safety precautions that must be followed when vessel entry is conducted during the course of routine maintenance, but wishes to seek further input from the industry on that draft language. However, in order for several of the revisions of this section supported by commenters to become effective and for the section to be reformatted in Texas Register format, no change was made at this time as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d), the commenter suggested that a statement be added that prohibits the use of dilution to exempt radioactive materials from regulation. The commenter was not clear whether the agency intends these exemption limits to also exempt waste from TNRCC radioactive material disposal requirements.

Response: The department does not allow dilution of materials in order to meet exemption limits. The memorandum of understanding between the TNRCC and the Texas Department of Health, §289.101, specifies the regulatory jurisdiction of each department. Specifically, §289.101(o) states, "Once a source of radiation is exempted from regulation by the Texas Board of Health in accordance with the code, §401.106, or meets release criteria for unrestricted use in accordance with the provisions of the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation (TRCR), its disposal as a radioactive substance is not subject to further regulation by the TNRCC." No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(A), the commenter supports the agency's revision of the exemption language in this subsection. The proposed exemption levels and removal of the requirement to evaluate the radon emanation level associated with a particular sample increases the ease of sampling and reduces the cost of analysis.

Response: The department acknowledges the comment. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(A), the commenter supports the exemption on oil and gas NORM waste if the material contains, or is contaminated at, concentrations of 30 picocuries per gram (pCi/gm) or less of technologically enhanced radium-226 or radium-228 in soil or other media.

Response: The department acknowledges the comment. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(A), the commenter noted that the 5 pCi/gm limit was dropped. The commenter questioned whether the department intended to drop the 5 pCi/gm limit for oil and gas NORM waste or if it was dropped inadvertently.

Response: The department has reviewed studies that show oil and gas NORM scale typically does not exceed the 20 picocuries per square meter per second (pCi/m 2 /sec) radon emanation rate, but is generally in the range of 2 to 4 pCi/m 2 /sec. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(A)(ii)(I) and (II), the commenter stated that the words "...provided that these concentrations are not exceeded at any time..." are confusing because such sampling is not a time function. The commenter suggested the words "...provide that these concentrations are not exceeded in any individual sample of the soil (media)."

Response: The department deleted the words "at any time" from both subclauses to clarify the intent of the section. The concentrations should not be exceeded in any sample at any time.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(B), the commenter suggested the paragraph be amended to specify "non-oil and gas NORM" to make it analogous to the wording of §289.259(d)(1)(A).

Response: The department added the words "other than oil and gas NORM waste" before "NORM" to clarify the intent of the rule.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(B), the commenter suggested that the subsection be clarified so that the exemption concentrations for soil are limited to undisturbed soil. The commenter stated that once soil is removed or otherwise disturbed, it should be considered "other media."

Response: Regardless whether the soil is disturbed or not, it does not become "other media." No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(1)(B)(iii)(II), the commenter stated that the words "...provided that these concentrations are not exceeded at any time..." are confusing because such sampling is not a time function. The commenter suggested the words "...provided that these concentrations are not exceeded in any individual sample of the soil (media)."

Response: The department deleted the words "at any time" from both subclauses to clarify the intent of the section. The concentrations should not be exceeded in any sample at any time.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(2) and (3), the commenter stated that these paragraphs do not address contamination with alpha and beta emitting radionuclides. The commenter suggested the release criteria in subsection (w) be referenced here. Also, the commenter stated that the unit "roentgen" is archaic and should be changed to "rem."

Response: The paragraphs do not address alpha and beta emitting radionuclides because these radionuclides will not generally be detected through the wall thickness of tubulars and equipment. The department added the words, "(tubulars) and other downhole or surface equipment used in oil production" after the word "Pipe" in paragraph (3) to clarify the intent of the exemption. Therefore facilities that are contaminated with NORM alpha and beta emitting radionuclides are general licensees and must follow the general license requirements for worker protection in subsection (g) and the requirements for release for unrestricted use in subsection (w). The term "roentgen" is the correct term. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(3), the commenter was concerned with the wording as it appears to remove the existing exemption applicable to equipment that has a radiation exposure level of 50 microroentgens per hour (µR/hr). This removes from the current exemptions heater treaters, filters, pumps, vessels and other equipment that contain NORM. The commenter suggested that the words "and other equipment" be added.

Response: The words "(tubulars) and other downhole or surface equipment used in oil production" were added after the word "Pipe" to clarify the intent of the exemption.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(3), the commenter suggested the term "pipe" as used in this section be defined. The commenter questioned whether the word "pipe" means any tubular equipment or just tubular used to transport gases and liquids. The commenter stated that many parts of chemical processing equipment could be called "pipe." There should be a requirement for minimally acceptable alpha and beta contamination levels. The gamma ray criteria should specify whether the pipe is in-service or empty since some NORM-contaminated natural gas gives off gamma rays that disappear when the pipe is empty. The commenter also questioned if it is acceptable to check contamination in the ends of small diameter pipe and assume that the measurement is representative of the entire joint of pipe.

Response: The words "(tubulars) and other downhole or surface equipment used in oil production" were added after the word "Pipe" to clarify the intent of the exemption. The word "pipe" means "tubulars" as that term is used by the oil and gas industry. This paragraph does not address alpha and beta emitting radionuclides. The rule allows the determination of the 50 µR/hr limit to be measured at any accessible point.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(5), the commenter supports the proposed rule and commends the agency for their efforts in crafting a proposal that recognizes the storage of fossil fuel combustion byproducts does not need a specific license. Texas coal-fired units produced over 12.7 million tons of coal combustion byproducts in 1996. Of that amount, 2.7 million tons of coal ash was used for additives in cement, drilling mud, bricks, shingles, and road construction. Obtaining a specific license would have a chilling effect on these recycling efforts. The commenter's customers receive the benefits of the revenues from the sale of these materials. More importantly, they benefit from the avoided disposal costs of landfilling ash as a waste material. This in turn reduces the amount of land utilized for disposal. The commenter believes that this conserves our natural resources while being protective of the environment.

Response: The department acknowledges the comment. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(d)(7), the commenter stated that while this exemption is appropriate, there should be requirements applicable to NORM-contaminated shipping vessels and equipment. The commenter further explained that there is significant contamination of vessels and facilities used in the transportation and storage of materials containing NORM. The commenter also noted that the first sentence could lead an organization to not realize this and thus permit individuals access to NORM contaminated equipment and facilities.

Response: Transportation means the actual conveyance of products. The exemption does not include the use of NORM-contaminated shipping vessels and equipment. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(e), the commenter noted that this subsection completely ignores measuring alpha and beta radiation. The commenter suggested that requirements for these survey meters need to be specified including a minimum detectable (MDA) for instruments used such as "having an MDA less than 25% of the release criteria." (There is such a requirement in the footnotes to the old appendix (289.259(w)) but it is easily overlooked).

Response: Subsection (e)(2) states that survey instruments shall be, "...calibrated, appropriate, and operable." "Appropriate" means the correct type of survey instrument (meter and probe) for measuring the expected types of radiation. The reference to the footnote concerns the efficiency of the detector used for the analyzes of wipes, not for a survey meter. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(e)(3), the commenter suggested that there should be a provision in this paragraph for generally licensed persons to calibrate their own alpha and beta survey instruments, provided they use calibration sources with an adequate accuracy, traceable to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), or equivalent, and also provided that the counters will be checked for counting accuracy annually, on all ranges, using a suitable electronic pulse generator.

Response: The rules in §289.252 of this title require that a person using a source to calibrate survey meters must be specifically licensed. Determination of efficiencies using an exempt source is not considered calibration. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f), the commenter stated that the requirements for a general licensee should contain language that would make them have to perform the same health and safety program as a specific licensee. The fact that a specific licensee must submit plans, notify the agency when work is to be performed, and have their procedures reviewed should be carried over to the general licensee. There is no system in place to ensure that the work is performed correctly or that the workers are protected. The commenter also stated that there should be a requirement for a mandatory survey of equipment like that required in both Louisiana and New Mexico.

Response: General licensees are required to meet the worker and general population protection requirements specified in subsection (g). Exposure to NORM-contaminated equipment is incidental to other activities being performed and is infrequent for general licensees. Specific licensees perform decontamination on a commercial basis. General licensees cannot release facilities or equipment unless specified limits are met. The agency believes these requirements are adequate to protect public health and safety when risk from radiation exposure is compared to the cost of requiring surveys at a specified interval. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(1), the commenter questioned whether the words "...or of NORM in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being" means that 149 pCi/gm is an acceptable level in food products. The commenter stated that this meaning could be interpreted from the current text and that maximum permissible activity levels need to be established for these products. (See §289.259(b)(2).)

Response: Subsection (f)(1) clearly states that a general license does not authorize the manufacture or commercial distribution of products containing NORM in concentrations greater that those specified in subsection (d)(1)(B). The paragraph does not allow any NORM in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(2), the commenter stated that this paragraph eliminates a general licensee's ability to expedite "routine maintenance" activities themselves when exposure pathways change and increase radiation exposure. Such activities cannot be considered "routine" in the proposed section. The commenter noted that the management options are engineering to reduce exposure or securing the services of a specific licensee to conduct the work. Depending on the maintenance task and its frequency, the latter option would become burdensome and cost prohibitive to the oil and gas industry.

The commenter further stated that worker protection plans providing protective measures that reduce radiation exposure while conducting activities in the presence of NORM are already required for oil and gas companies by the agency. Executing routine maintenance tasks implementing these protective controls would be appropriate where engineering is not viable and provides an alternative to contracting the services of a specific licensee.

Response: The department's responsibility is to protect public health and safety and the department is concerned about the radiation exposure risk associated with certain activities that are considered "routine maintenance" by the persons affected by this rule. The affected industry has indicated that they consider "routine maintenance" to be the repair and maintenance of equipment for the purpose of restoring its intended use or efficiency, regardless of the presence of oil and gas NORM. Decontamination of equipment contaminated with NORM above the exempt limits may occur incidental to the routine maintenance. The department acknowledges, however, that not all routine maintenance activities result in a significant increase in radiation exposure risk. Simple routine maintenance tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, or "pigging" a pipe are such activities.

The wording in subsection (f)(2), "Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine," was proposed in order to further define the risk the department is concerned about. In discussions with the industry, the department determined that the activity that presents the most concern is vessel entry. The industry considers this to be routine maintenance. However, this is the type of operation that the department believes presents a significantly increased risk from an enclosed environment where an inhalation risk (a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations) from NORM can be present.

The department acknowledges that unlike the employees of a company specifically licensed to perform decontamination, the employees or contractors of a general license would be performing vessel entry on an infrequent basis and thus, the radiation exposure risk is lowered due to a time factor.

The department plans to draft language that will outline radiation safety precautions that must be followed when vessel entry is conducted during the course of routine maintenance, but wishes to seek further input from the industry on that draft language. However, in order for several of the revisions of this section supported by commenters to become effective and for the section to be reformatted in Texas Register format, no change was made at this time as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(2), the commenter questioned what the department considers a "different pathway for exposure" and suggested that clarification of the phrase and an example would be beneficial. The commenter also suggested including definitions of "routine maintenance" and "maintenance" in §289.259(c).

Response: The department's responsibility is to protect public health and safety and the department is concerned about the radiation exposure risk associated with certain activities that are considered "routine maintenance" by the persons affected by this rule. The affected industry has indicated that they consider "routine maintenance" to be the repair and maintenance of equipment for the purpose of restoring its intended use or efficiency, regardless of the presence of oil and gas NORM. Decontamination of equipment contaminated with NORM above the exempt limits may occur incidental to the routine maintenance. The department acknowledges, however, that not all routine maintenance activities result in a significant increase in radiation exposure risk. Simple routine maintenance tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, or "pigging" a pipe are such activities.

The wording in subsection (f)(2), "Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine," was proposed in order to further define the risk the department is concerned about. In discussions with the industry, the department determined that the activity that presents the most concern is vessel entry. The industry considers this to be routine maintenance. However, this is the type of operation that the department believes presents a significantly increased risk from an enclosed environment where an inhalation risk (a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations) from NORM can be present.

The department acknowledges that unlike the employees of a company specifically licensed to perform decontamination, the employees or contractors of a general license would be performing vessel entry on an infrequent basis and thus, the radiation exposure risk is lowered due to a time factor.

The department plans to draft language that will outline radiation safety precautions that must be followed when vessel entry is conducted during the course of routine maintenance, but wishes to seek further input from the industry on that draft language. However, in order for several of the revisions of this section supported by commenters to become effective and for the section to be reformatted in Texas Register format, no change was made at this time as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(2), the commenter stated that this paragraph mixes requirements for both general and specific licenses. The commenter suggested the requirements be grouped under subsection (f) and (i) respectively, to eliminate confusion from requirements being listed in multiple locations. The commenter further stated that the parenthetical expression implies that non-routine maintenance must be performed by specifically licensed persons. This would place an unnecessary burden and considerable cost on plant maintenance operations. Many operations that are considered to be routine maintenance present a potential for exposure to NORM. Any operation that brings a surface exposed to NORM contaminated process materials into contact with maintenance personnel provides a potential pathway for exposure. This would include simple tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, "pigging" a pipe and the multitude of tasks that require personnel entry into process equipment. Much maintenance requires operations by specialists who are not necessarily versed in the requirements for working with NORM contaminated equipment. However, they can perform the work safely if properly trained, equipped and supervised. Personal protective equipment required for work on NORM contaminated materials is often the same as in already being used because of the presence of chemical and mechanical hazards.

The commenter suggested adding or replacing the last sentence in paragraph (f)(2) with "An organization that owns, possesses or controls buildings, structures, equipment or land may perform non-routine maintenance and decontamination on its facilities and equipment if it has programs and requirements in place equivalent or more comprehensive than those specified and required in §289.259(k)(2) of this title for licensed decontaminators. Actual work may be performed by temporary employees and contractors who have been trained and equipped to perform the work, receive any additional instruction necessary for a specific job and are appropriately monitored by trained radiation safety monitors."

Response: The department's responsibility is to protect public health and safety and the department is concerned about the radiation exposure risk associated with certain activities that are considered "routine maintenance" by the persons affected by this rule. The affected industry has indicated that they consider "routine maintenance" to be the repair and maintenance of equipment for the purpose of restoring its intended use or efficiency, regardless of the presence of oil and gas NORM. Decontamination of equipment contaminated with NORM above the exempt limits may occur incidental to the routine maintenance. The department acknowledges, however, that not all routine maintenance activities result in a significant increase in radiation exposure risk. Simple routine maintenance tasks such as replacing or repairing a valve, changing filters, or "pigging" a pipe are such activities.

The wording in subsection (f)(2), "Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine," was proposed in order to further define the risk the department is concerned about. In discussions with the industry, the department determined that the activity that presents the most concern is vessel entry. The industry considers this to be routine maintenance. However, this is the type of operation that the department believes presents a significantly increased risk from an enclosed environment where an inhalation risk (a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations) from NORM can be present.

The department acknowledges that unlike the employees of a company specifically licensed to perform decontamination, the employees or contractors of a general license would be performing vessel entry on an infrequent basis and thus, the radiation exposure risk is lowered due to a time factor.

The department plans to draft language that will outline radiation safety precautions that must be followed when vessel entry is conducted during the course of routine maintenance, but wishes to seek further input from the industry on that draft language. However, in order for several of the revisions of this section supported by commenters to become effective and for the section to be reformatted in Texas Register format, no change was made at this time as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(4), the commenter suggested adding a subparagraph (D) as follows, "The person or organization temporarily transferring material or equipment, contaminated in excess of limits specified in this section, to another person or organization for the purposes such as maintenance, apprises that person or organization of the contamination levels on the transferred material of equipment." The commenter stated that this would permit temporary transfer of contaminated materials for purposes of repair or maintenance.

Response: The department's planned future revision to this section concerning routine maintenance will address the addition of radiation safety precautions. The department will be seeking additional input from the industry on this issue at this time. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(f)(5), the commenter stated that this prohibition could be a problem for oil and gas NORM operators and for land owners in Texas. In the case of oil and gas operators who are ready to release land back to land owners for unrestricted use, it would mean that they would have to assess all of their properties and remediate those areas that are above 50 µR/hr. In today's economic environment for the oil and gas industry, which is at a point of near failure, any increase cost for operators becomes a burden for them. For a land owner, who has all his property abandoned by an oil and gas operator with no responsible party left, that land owner would possess NORM and would be subject to the agency's rules. Therefore, they will not be able to sell the property without assessing and remediating. The commenter also stated that to remediate land can exceed the value of the land. In effect, the state would have taken that land from the land owner.

Response: The words "land contaminated with NORM in excess of the soil concentrations set forth in subsection (d) of this section," were deleted from subsection (f)(2), and subsection (f)(5) was deleted completely. These deletions make the requirement concerning the release of land for unrestricted use the same as it existed prior to adoption of this revised section. The department and the RCT will be resolving a jurisdictional issue concerning land contamination in a planned memorandum of understanding between the two agencies in the near future.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(h)(1)(B), the commenter stated that the agency does not have the statutory authority to allow NORM waste to be disposed of in a facility licensed by the agency for by-product disposal. The commenter stated that to allow NORM waste to be disposed of at such a facility would require a license issued by the TNRCC for NORM disposal.

Response: The department deleted the language, "and which...Facilities" from subparagraph (h)(1)(B) and deleted the language “by transfer...or” in proposed subparagraph (C) because it is not necessary to specify under what requirements a person must be specifically licensed to receive waste containing NORM. Proposed subparagraph (D) was renumbered as subparagraph (C).

Comment: Concerning §289.259(h)(1)(C), the commenter suggested that this subparagraph be revised to remove the reference to the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and an agreement state. The commenter stated that NRC, and by inference, NRC agreement states, do not have regulatory authority over NORM and therefore should not be listed as an appropriate authorizing bodies. The provision should reference the TNRCC, the RCT, or appropriate jurisdictional agency in another state.

Response: The department deleted this subparagraph because it is not necessary to specify under what requirements a person must be specifically licensed to receive waste containing NORM. Proposed subparagraph (D) was renumbered as subparagraph (C).

Comment: Concerning §289.259(h)(3), the commenter suggested that this paragraph be amended to state "... to a person specifically authorized by the TNRCC, RCT, or the jurisdictional agency in another state, as appropriate, to receive such waste."

Response: The department deleted this paragraph because it is redundant.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(i)(1), the commenter stated that a numerical limit needs to be specified to define when NORM is present, e.g. "...NORM is present at concentrations greater than X pCi/gm." (See comments on §289.259(b)(2).)

Response: Unless otherwise exempted, any level of NORM in a material or product manufactured and commercially distributed must be specifically licensed. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(i)(2), the commenter stated that consideration needs to be given to persons or organizations who have capabilities and procedures equivalent or superior to those required of persons specifically licensed to perform decontamination as a business. These organizations should be permitted to maintain and decontaminate their own facilities and equipment. The commenter suggested that such authorization could be either by regulatory requirement of general licensees, review and approval of their procedures or granting of a special class of specific license for such activities. "Regulatory requirement of general licensees" means a statement in the regulations that general licensees with XYZ capabilities are permitted to maintain and decontaminate their own contaminated facilities and equipment.

Response: Persons specifically licensed to decontaminate NORM are doing so on a commercial basis. The department's planned future revision to this section concerning routine maintenance will address decontamination incidental to routine maintenance by a general licensee. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(i)(3), the commenter suggested changing the wording to "Unless otherwise exempted in accordance with subsection (d) of this section, persons receiving NORM waste from other persons for commercial storage or processing or persons who commercially process NORM for other persons at temporary job sites. Persons or organizations may consolidate waste from different locations owned or controlled by that organization at one of their sites, for the purpose of efficient waste consolidation prior to disposal at an appropriate disposal site." The commenter stated that as the section is written, the regulation would prohibit an organization with multiple sites such as a pipeline, from consolidating its waste at one site for efficient packaging for proper disposal.

Response: The definition of person as §289.201(b)(68) of this title includes a corporation. Therefore, "other persons" would not include multiple sites under the same general licensee. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(i)(3), the commenter questioned whether any contract worker who is going to be drumming scale or sludge at a licensee's site would have to be specifically licensed. In some cases some of the people at the disposal sites would have to be specifically licensed, for example, RCT allows NORM to be put in wells that are plugged. These contractors would have to be specifically licensed to dispose of NORM. The commenter also questioned if contractors of licensees are supposed to be specifically licensed to perform NORM clean-up. The commenter suggested clarification of the definition of "other persons" for contractors as part of the "person" and not "other persons. Also, the commenter suggested putting in a requirement for notification to contractors of hazard and for basic safety training for NORM handling.

Response: If the contractor is hired specifically to decontaminate, the contractor must be a specific licensee. If the contractor is hired to do maintenance and incidentally decontaminates, then the general licensee is responsible for complying with the rules. The department's planned future revision to this section concerning routine maintenance will address the addition of radiation safety precautions. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(i)(4), the commenter questioned the term "spinning pipe gauge" since pipe is exempted in subsection (d)(3) of this section. Also, the commenter questioned why pipe is given special consideration in these regulations.

Response: The oil and gas and petrochemical industry is prevalent in Texas and pipe is integral to this business. A spinning pipe gauge is a gauge containing radioactive material that is used to measure pipe thickness. A spinning pipe gauge is not included in the exemption in subsection (d)(3). Considering economic factors weighed against risk, screening criteria for pipe was developed. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(k)(3), the commenter questioned the term "spinning pipe gauge" since pipe is exempted in subsection (d)(3) of this section. Also, the commenter questioned why pipe is given special consideration in these regulations.

Response: The oil and gas and petrochemical industry is prevalent in Texas and pipe is integral to this business. A spinning pipe gauge is a gauge containing radioactive material that is used to measure pipe thickness. A spinning pipe gauge is not included in the exemption in subsection (d)(3). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(k)(4)(B), the commenter stated that criteria are needed to define when NORM is not contained in a product at a significant level. Some natural gas extracted in Texas contains radon gas. Components of the natural gas are separated and used in chemical industries, inadvertently enhancing the concentration of radon in the natural gas product which would then be considered NORM as defined in these regulations. Anything derived from this natural gas product then potentially contains NORM. These materials are used in a variety of products, some of which are consumed by humans and livestock. The commenter is concerned that by the wording used, production of these products would not be permitted. The commenter suggested a permissible concentration be defined at which the NORM is not considered a significant risk for any use of the material. The commenter cited the EPA criteria for radioisotopes in drinking water as an example.

Response: Natural gas and natural gas products, are exempted from the requirements of this section as stated in subsection (d)(7). No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(l)(2), the commenter questioned the fact that paragraph (l)(1) exempts dose from intake of radon and radon decay products and this paragraph only exempts radon. The commenter suggested that to be consistent, this paragraph should also exempt dose from radon and radon decay products.

Response: The words "and radon decay products" were added to subsection (l)(2) after the words "excluding radon" for consistency.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(l)(3), the commenter is concerned with release of radon gas and releases at average concentrations greater than 0.4 picocuries per liter (pCi/l). The commenter is concerned with the fact that this section's requirement of concentrations greater than 0.4 pCi/l is much lower than the EPA's action level for radon in homes of 4.0 pCi/l. The commenter stated that the definition of average radon concentration needs to be defined as to location, time and spatial averaging.

Response: This paragraph applies to exempt products containing NORM. An individual may receive other contributions to their dose from other radon sources. Therefore, the limit is lower than EPA's action level in order to account for contributions to dose from other sources. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(o)(2)(C), the commenter questioned whether this requirement applies to contaminated materials or equipment, temporarily transferred to another organization for the purpose of maintenance or repair, with subsequent return of the material or equipment and all contaminated materials to the original organization.

Response: This subsection refers to specific licensure of the manufacture and/or commercial distribution of products and materials containing NORM, and not contaminated materials or equipment. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(p)(4)(B), the commenter stated that the language in this subparagraph is vague and can be interpreted too broadly. The commenter suggested that this provision require that radioactive contamination be cleaned up to the levels specified in §289.202 of this title, and not to the extent practicable.

Response: Subparagraph (B) of paragraph (4) was deleted because paragraph (5) more clearly states the intent of the rule. Subsequent subparagraphs were renumbered to reflect the deletion.

Comment: Concerning proposed §289.259(p)(4)(D), the commenter suggested that the methodology of performing the required survey should be specified, e.g. "As described in NUREG/CR-5849."

Response: Since there are several acceptable methodologies, no specific ones were prescribed. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(u)(2)(A), the commenter suggested that this subparagraph be amended to state "specifically licensed by the TNRCC or RCT, as appropriate, or by the appropriate jurisdictional agency in another state, to receive such material..."

Response: The word "radioactive" was replaced with the word "NORM" to more clearly state the intent of the rule. A sentence that reads, "The Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission (TNRCC) has the jurisdiction to regulate disposal of NORM, other than oil and gas NORM, which is under the jurisdiction of the Railroad Commission of Texas (RCT)" was added to subsection (a) to further clarify the intent of the section.

Comment: Concerning §289.259(u)(2)(B), the commenter suggested that this subparagraph be amended to clarify that in Texas, exempt non-oil and gas NORM is also regulated as solid waste under the Texas Solid Waste Disposal Act and is subject to the regulations of the TNRCC.

Response: Language was added to subsection (a) to clearly state the TNRCC jurisdiction. Once the department exempts NORM, other than oil and gas NORM, which is under the jurisdiction of the RCT, the department does not attempt to list all of the statutes that the material may then be subject to. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Commenters included representatives from Marathon Oil Company, NORM Decon Services, LLC, Texas Utilities Services, Shell Company, Texas Oil and Gas Association, Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission, and Union Carbide Corporation. In addition, numerous individuals commented. The commenters were generally favorable of the rule as proposed; however, the commenters had questions or specific concerns, and offered suggestions for changes to the proposal as discussed in the summary of comments.

Subchapter C. Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation

25 TAC §289.127

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for its procedure and for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901681

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter F. License Regulations

25 TAC §289.259

The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board with the authority to adopt rules for its procedure and for the performance of every duty imposed by law on the board, the department, and the commissioner of health. The General Appropriations Act, Article IX, Rider 167, passed by the 75th Legislature is implemented by the adoption.

§289.259.Licensing of Naturally Occurring Radioactive Material (NORM).

(a)

Purpose. This section establishes radiation protection standards for the possession, use, transfer, transport, and/or storage of naturally occurring radioactive material (NORM) or the recycling of NORM-contaminated materials not subject to regulation under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (AEA). This section is not intended to regulate the disposal of radioactive substances. The Texas Natural Resource Conservation Commission (TNRCC) has the jurisdiction to regulate disposal of NORM, other than oil and gas NORM, which is under the jurisdiction of the Railroad Commission of Texas (RCT).

(b)

Scope.

(1)

This section applies to any person who engages in the extraction, mining, beneficiating, processing, use, transfer, transport, or storage of NORM or the recycling of NORM-contaminated materials.

(2)

This section addresses the introduction of NORM into products in which neither the NORM nor the radiation emitted from the NORM is considered to be beneficial to the products. The manufacture and commercial distribution of products containing NORM in which the NORM or its associated radiation(s) are considered to be a beneficial attribute are licensed in accordance with the provisions of §289.252 of this title (relating to Licensing of Radioactive Material).

(3)

The requirements of this section are in addition to and not in substitution for other applicable requirements of §289.201 of this title (relating to General Provisions), §289.202 of this title (relating to Standards for Protection Against Radiation), §289.203 of this title (relating to Notices, Instructions and Reports to Workers; Inspections), §289.204 of this title (relating to Fees for Certificates of Registration, Radioactive Material(s) Licenses, Emergency Planning and Implementation, and Other Regulatory Services), §289.205 of this title (relating to Hearing and Enforcement Procedures), §289.251 of this title (relating to Exemptions, General Licenses, and General License Acknowledgments), §289.252 of this title, and §289.257 of this title (relating to Packaging and Transportation of Radioactive Material).

(c)

Definition. The following words and terms, when used in this section, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(1)

Beneficial attribute or beneficial to the product - The radioactivity of the product is necessary to the use of the product.

(2)

Beneficiating - The processing of materials for the purpose of altering chemical or physical properties to improve the quality, purity, or assay grade.

(3)

Decontamination - The cleaning process of removing or reducing residual radioactivity from equipment, buildings, structures, and land owned, possessed, or controlled by other persons to a level that permits release of equipment, buildings, structures and land for unrestricted use or termination of license.

(4)

Naturally occurring radioactive material (NORM) - Naturally occurring materials not regulated under the AEA whose radionuclide concentrations have been increased by or as a result of human practices. NORM does not include the natural radioactivity of rocks or soils, or background radiation, but instead refers to materials whose radioactivity is concentrated by controllable practices (or by past human practices). NORM does not include source, byproduct, or special nuclear material.

(5)

Other media - Any volumetric material other than soils or liquids (for example: sludge, scale, slag, etcetera).

(6)

Person - As defined in §289.201(b)(68) of this title.

(7)

Product - Something produced, made, manufactured, refined, or beneficiated.

(8)

Recycling - A process by which materials that have served their intended use are collected, separated, or processed and returned to use in the form of raw materials in the production of new products. Recycling shall not include the use of a material in a manner that constitutes disposal.

(d)

Exemptions.

(1)

Persons who receive, possess, use, process, transfer, transport, store, or commercially distribute:

(A)

Oil and gas NORM waste are exempt from the requirements of this chapter if the material contains, or is contaminated at, concentrations of:

(i)

30 picocuries per gram (pCi/gm) or less of radium-226 or radium-228 in:

(I)

soil, averaged over any 100 square meters (m 2 ) and averaged over the first 15 centimeters (cm) of soil below the surface; or

(II)

other media; or

(ii)

150 pCi or less per gram of any other NORM radionuclide in:

(I)

soil, averaged over any 100 m 2 and averaged over the first 15 cm of soil below the surface, provided that these concentrations are not exceeded; or

(II)

other media, provided that these concentrations are not exceeded.

(B)

Other than oil and gas NORM waste, NORM is exempt from the requirements of this chapter if the materials contain, or are contaminated at, concentrations of:

(i)

30 pCi/gm or less of radium-226 or radium-228 in:

(I)

soil, averaged over any 100 m 2 and averaged over the first 15 cm of soil below the surface, provided the radon emanation rate is less than 20 picocuries per square meter per second (pCi/m 2 /sec); or

(II)

other media, provided the radon emanation rate is less than 20 pCi/m 2 /sec;

(ii)

5 pCi/gm or less of radium-226 or radium-228 in:

(I)

soil, averaged over any 100 m 2 and averaged over the first 15 cm of soil below the surface, in which the radon emanation rate is equal to or greater than 20 pCi/m 2 /sec; or

(II)

other media, in which the radon emanation rate is equal to or greater than 20 pCi/m 2 /sec; or

(iii)

150 pCi or less per gram of any other NORM radionuclide in:

(I)

soil, averaged over any 100 m 2 and averaged over the first 15 cm of soil below the surface, provided that the radon emanation rate is less than 20 pCi/m 2 /sec; or

(II)

other media, provided that these concentrations are not exceeded.

(2)

Materials and equipment in the recycling process contaminated with NORM scale or residue not otherwise exempted are exempt from the requirements of this section if the maximum radiation exposure level does not exceed 50 microroentgens per hour (µR/hr) including the background radiation level at any accessible point.

(3)

Pipe (tubulars) and other downhole or surface equipment used in oil production contaminated with NORM scale or residue not otherwise exempted is exempt from the requirements of this section if the maximum radiation exposure level does not exceed 50 µR/hr including the background radiation level at any accessible point.

(4)

Products or materials containing NORM distributed in accordance with a specific license issued by the agency in accordance with subsection (k)(4) of this section or an equivalent license issued by another licensing state are exempt from the requirements of this section.

(5)

The manufacture, commercial distribution, use, or storage of the following products/materials or the recycling of equipment or containers used to produce, contain, or transport these products are exempt from the requirements of this section:

(A)

potassium and potassium compounds that have not been isotopically enriched in the radionuclide K-40;

(B)

byproducts from fossil fuel combustion (bottom ash, fly ash, and flue-gas emission control byproducts); and

(C)

material used for building construction, industrial processing, sand blasting, metal casings, or other NORM in which the radionuclide content has not been concentrated to higher levels than found in its natural state.

(6)

The wholesale and retail commercial distribution (including custom blending), possession, and use of the following products/materials or the recycling of equipment or containers used to produce, contain, or transport these products, are exempt from the requirements of this section. The manufacture of phosphate and potash fertilizer is subject to the general license requirements in subsections (f)-(h) of this section:

(A)

phosphate and potash fertilizer;

(B)

phosphogypsum for agricultural uses if such commercial distribution and uses meet the requirements of 40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 61.204; and

(C)

materials used for building construction if the materials contain NORM that has not been concentrated to higher levels than found in its natural state.

(7)

The possession, storage, use, transportation, and commercial distribution of natural gas and natural gas products and of crude oil and crude oil products containing NORM are exempt from the requirements of this section. The processing of natural gas and crude oil and the manufacture of natural gas products and crude oil products containing NORM are subject to the general license requirements in subsections (f)-(h) of this section.

(8)

Possession of produced waters from crude oil and natural gas production is exempt from the requirements of this section if the produced waters are reinjected in a well approved by the agency having jurisdiction to regulate such reinjection or if the produced waters are discharged under the authority of the agency having jurisdiction to regulate such discharge.

(e)

Radiation survey instruments.

(1)

Radiation survey instruments used to determine exemptions in accordance with subsection (d)(2) and (3) of this section and radiation survey instruments used to make surveys in accordance with subsection (f) of this section shall be able to measure from 1 µR/hr through at least 500 µR/hr.

(2)

Radiation survey instruments used to make surveys required by this section and §289.202(p)(1) of this title shall be calibrated, appropriate, and operable.

(3)

Each radiation survey instrument shall be calibrated:

(A)

by a person licensed or registered by the agency, another agreement state or licensing state, or the United States Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) to perform such service;

(B)

at energies appropriate for the licensee's use;

(C)

at intervals not to exceed 12 months, and after each instrument servicing other than battery replacement; and

(D)

to demonstrate an accuracy within plus or minus 20% using a reference source provided by a person authorized in accordance with subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(4)

Records of these calibrations shall be maintained for agency inspection for five years after the calibration date.

(f)

General license.

(1)

A general license is hereby issued to mine, extract, receive, possess, own, use, process, transport, store, and transfer for disposal NORM or to recycle NORM-contaminated materials not exempted in subsection (d) of this section without regard to quantity. This general license does not authorize the manufacture or commercial distribution of products containing NORM in concentrations greater than those specified in subsection (d)(1)(B) of this section, or of NORM in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being. The melting of scrap metal is authorized by the general license if the dilution of the NORM in the end-products or melt byproducts is sufficient to reduce any expected average concentration of NORM to levels not to exceed the concentration specified in subsection (d)(1)(B) of this section.

(2)

Equipment, buildings, and structures contaminated with NORM in excess of the levels set forth in subsection (w) of this section and equipment not otherwise exempted under the provisions of subsection (d)(2) and (3) of this section shall not be released for unrestricted use. The decontamination of equipment, buildings, and structures as described in subsection (i)(2) of this section shall be performed only by persons specifically licensed by the agency or another licensing state to conduct such work, including contractors of a general licensee, except that a general licensee or a contractor under the control and supervision of a general licensee can perform routine maintenance on equipment, buildings, and structures owned or controlled by the general licensee. (Maintenance that provides a different pathway for exposure than is found in daily operations and that increases the potential for additional exposure is not considered routine.) Persons conducting activities specified in subsection (i)(2) of this section and working as a contractor under the control and supervision of a general licensee must possess a specific license issued by the agency in accordance with subsection (k) of this section.

(3)

The handling or processing by a general licensee of NORM-contaminated materials not otherwise exempted from the requirements of this section for the purpose of recycling is authorized by the agency if the radiation level 18 inches from the NORM-contaminated material does not exceed 2 millirem per hour (mrem/hr).

(4)

The transfer of NORM not exempt from the requirements of this section from one general licensee to another general licensee is authorized by the agency if the:

(A)

equipment, buildings, and structures contaminated with NORM are to be used by the recipient for the same purpose or at the same site;

(B)

materials being transferred are ores or raw materials for processing or refinement; or

(C)

materials being transferred are in the recycling process.

(g)

Protection of workers and the general population. Each person subject to the general license in subsection (f) of this section shall conduct operations in compliance with the standards for radiation protection established in §289.202(f)-(o), (ww)-(zz) of this title, and §289.203 of this title, except for transfer for disposal, which shall be governed by subsection (h) of this section.

(h)

Transfer of waste for disposal.

(1)

Each person subject to the general license in subsection (f) of this section shall manage and dispose of wastes containing NORM:

(A)

in accordance with the United States Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) applicable requirements for disposal of such wastes;

(B)

by transfer of the wastes for disposal to a person specifically licensed to receive waste containing NORM; or

(C)

in accordance with alternate methods authorized by the agency having jurisdiction to regulate disposal of such waste.

(2)

Records of transfers for disposal shall be maintained for inspection by the agency.

(i)

Specific license.

(1)

Unless otherwise exempted under the provisions of subsection (d) of this section or licensed under the provisions of §289.252 of this title, the manufacture and commercial distribution of any material or product containing NORM shall be specifically licensed in accordance with this section or in accordance with the equivalent requirements of another licensing state.

(2)

Persons conducting deliberate operations to decontaminate the following shall be specifically licensed in accordance with the requirements of this section:

(A)

buildings and structures owned, possessed, or controlled by other persons and contaminated with NORM in excess of the levels set forth in subsection (w) of this section; or

(B)

equipment or land owned, possessed, or controlled by other persons and not otherwise exempted under the provisions of subsection (d) of this section.

(3)

Unless otherwise exempted in accordance with subsection (d) of this section, persons receiving NORM waste from other persons for storage or processing or persons who process NORM for other persons at temporary job sites shall be specifically licensed in accordance with the requirements of this section.

(4)

Spinning pipe gauge licensees performing reclamation activities shall obtain specific authorization to perform NORM decontamination on pipe. Alternatively, spinning pipe gauge licensees may survey tubing before reclamation activities are performed. If the exposure rate on the outside of a pipe, measured at any accessible point, is greater than 50 µR/hr, then the spinning pipe gauge licensee shall obtain a NORM decontamination license. If the exposure rate of the pipe measures less than 50 µR/hr, a spinning pipe gauge licensee may perform the scale removal activity without additional authorization on their license.

(j)

Filing application for specific licenses.

(1)

Applications for specific licenses shall be filed in duplicate on a form prescribed by the agency.

(2)

The agency may at any time after the filing of the original application, and before the expiration of the license, require further information in order to determine whether the application should be granted or denied, or whether a license should be modified or revoked.

(3)

Each application shall be signed by the applicant or licensee, or a person duly authorized to act for and on the licensee's behalf.

(4)

A license application may include a request for a license authorizing one or more activities.

(5)

Applications and documents submitted to the agency may be made available for public inspection. The agency may, however, withhold any document or part thereof from public inspection in accordance with §289.201(n) of this title.

(6)

Each application for a specific license shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in §289.204 of this title.

(k)

Requirements for the issuance of specific licenses.

(1)

A license application will be approved if the agency determines that:

(A)

the applicant is qualified by reason of training and experience to use the material in question for the purpose requested, according to this section, and in a manner that minimizes danger to public health and safety, property, or the environment;

(B)

the applicant's proposed buildings, structures, and procedures are adequate to minimize danger to public health and safety, property, or the environment;

(C)

the issuance of the license will not adversely affect the health and safety of the public;

(D)

the applicant satisfies any applicable special requirements in this section; and

(E)

the applicant has met the financial security requirements of subsection (v) of this section.

(2)

An application for a specific license to decontaminate equipment or land not otherwise exempted under the provisions of subsection (d) of this section or buildings and structures contaminated with NORM in excess of the levels set forth in subsection (w) of this section, as applicable, will be approved if:

(A)

the applicant satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection; and

(B)

the applicant has adequately addressed the following items in the application:

(i)

procedures and equipment for monitoring and protection of workers;

(ii)

an evaluation of the radiation levels and concentrations of contamination expected during normal operations;

(iii)

operating and emergency procedures, and quality assurance of items released for unrestricted use; and

(iv)

a method of managing the NORM waste removed from contaminated equipment, buildings, structures, and land for disposal or storage.

(3)

An application for a specific license to perform NORM decontamination for spinning pipe gauges not otherwise exempted from the requirements of this section in accordance with subsection (d)(3) of this section will be approved if:

(A)

the applicant satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection; and

(B)

the applicant has adequately addressed the following items in the application:

(i)

procedures and equipment for monitoring and protection of workers;

(ii)

an evaluation of the radiation levels and concentrations of contamination expected during normal operations;

(iii)

operating and emergency procedures, and quality assurance of items released for unrestricted use; and

(iv)

a method of managing the NORM waste removed from contaminated pipes for disposal or storage.

(4)

An application for a specific license to manufacture and/or commercially distribute products or materials containing NORM to persons exempted from the requirements of this section in accordance with subsection (d)(4) of this section will be approved if:

(A)

the applicant satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection;

(B)

the NORM is not contained in any food, beverage, cosmetic, drug, or other commodity designed for ingestion or inhalation by, or application to, a human being; and

(C)

the applicant submits sufficient information relating to the design, manufacture, prototype testing, quality control procedures, labeling or marking, and conditions of handling, storage, use, and disposal of the NORM material or product to demonstrate that the material or product will meet the safety criteria set forth in subsection (l) of this section. The information shall include:

(i)

a description of the material or product and its intended use or uses;

(ii)

the type, quantity, and concentration of NORM in each material or product;

(iii)

the chemical and physical form of the NORM in the material or product, and changes in chemical and physical form that may occur during the useful life of the material or product;

(iv)

an analysis of the solubility in water and human body fluids of the NORM in the material or product;

(v)

the details of manufacture and design of the material or product relating to containment and shielding of the NORM and other safety features under normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, reuse, and disposal of the material or product;

(vi)

the type and extent of human access to the material or product during normal handling, use, and disposal;

(vii)

the total quantity of NORM expected to be distributed annually in the material or product;

(viii)

the expected useful life of the material or product;

(ix)

the proposed method for labeling or marking each unit of the material or product to identify the manufacturer and/or commercial distributor of the product and the radionuclide(s) and quantity of NORM in the material or product;

(x)

procedures for prototype testing of the material or product to demonstrate the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, and other safety features under both normal and severe conditions of handling, storage, use, reuse, and disposal;

(xi)

results of the prototype testing of the material or product, including any change in the form of the NORM contained in it, the extent that the NORM may be released to the environment, any change in radiation levels, and any other changes in safety features;

(xii)

the estimated external radiation doses and dose commitments relevant to the safety criteria in subsection (l) of this section and the basis for such estimates;

(xiii)

a determination that the probabilities with respect to doses referred to in subsection (l) of this section meet the criteria;

(xiv)

quality control procedures to be followed in assuring each production lot meets agency-approved quality control standards; and

(xv)

any additional information, including experimental studies and tests, required by the agency to facilitate a determination of the safety of the material or product.

(5)

An application for a specific license for persons who receive NORM waste from other persons for processing or persons who process NORM for other persons at temporary job sites in accordance with subsection (i)(3) of this section will be approved if:

(A)

the applicant satisfies the requirements specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection; and

(B)

the applicant has adequately addressed the following items in the application:

(i)

procedures and equipment for monitoring and protection of workers;

(ii)

an evaluation of the radiation levels and concentrations of contamination expected during normal operations; and

(iii)

operating and emergency procedures, including quality assurance of items released for unrestricted use.

(6)

Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection, the agency may deny an application for a specific license if the end uses of the product are frivolous or cannot be reasonably foreseen through complete technical documentation.

(l)

Safety criteria. An applicant for a license under subsection (k)(4) of this section shall demonstrate that the product is designed and will be manufactured so that:

(1)

during routine use and disposal, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the dose equivalent resulting from the intake of radioactive material, excluding radon and radon decay products, in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the consumer end-use material or product, will exceed the doses in column I of subsection (m) of this section;

(2)

during routine handling and storage of the quantities of the industrial material or product likely to accumulate in one location during marketing, commercial distribution, installation, and servicing of the material or product, it is unlikely that the external radiation dose in any one year, or the dose equivalent resulting from the intake of radioactive material, excluding radon and radon decay products, in any one year, to a suitable sample of the group of individuals expected to be most highly exposed to radiation or radioactive material from the industrial material or product, will exceed the doses in column II of subsection (m) of this section;

(3)

during routine use, disposal, handling, and storage, it is unlikely that the radon released from the material or product will result in an increase in the average radon concentration in air of more than 0.4 picocurie per liter (pCi/l); and

(4)

it is unlikely that there will be a significant reduction in the effectiveness of the containment, shielding, or other safety features of the material or product from wear and abuse likely to occur in normal handling and use of the material or product during its useful life.

(m)

Table of allowable organ doses. The following table describes the doses allowed per specific organ.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.259(m)

(n)

Issuance of specific licenses.

(1)

When an application meets the requirements of the Act and rules of the agency, the agency will issue a specific license authorizing the proposed activity in such form and containing appropriate or necessary conditions and limitations.

(2)

The agency may incorporate in a license at the time of issuance, or thereafter by amendment, any additional requirements and conditions with respect to the licensee's receipt, possession, use, and transfer of NORM subject to this section as it considers appropriate or necessary in order to:

(A)

minimize danger to public health and safety, property, or the environment;

(B)

require such reports and the keeping of such records, and to provide for such inspections of activities under the license as may be appropriate or necessary; and

(C)

prevent loss or theft of material subject to this section.

(o)

Conditions of licenses issued under subsection (k) of this section.

(1)

General terms and conditions.

(A)

Each license issued in accordance with this section shall be subject to all the provisions of the Act, now or hereafter in effect, and to all rules and orders of the agency.

(B)

No license issued or granted under this section and no right to possess or utilize NORM granted by any license issued in accordance with this section shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, directly or indirectly, through transfer of control of any license to any person unless the agency, after securing full information, finds that the transfer is in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and gives its consent in writing.

(C)

Each person licensed by the agency in accordance with this section shall use and possess the licensed material at the locations and for purposes authorized in the license.

(D)

Each person licensed by the agency in accordance with this section is subject to the general license provisions of subsection (g) of this section.

(E)

Each person licensed by the agency in accordance with this section shall manage and dispose of wastes containing NORM:

(i)

in accordance with EPA applicable requirements for disposal of such wastes;

(ii)

by transfer of the wastes for disposal to a person specifically licensed to receive waste containing NORM and that is licensed under requirements equivalent to those for uranium and thorium byproduct materials in §289.260 of this title;

(iii)

by transfer of the wastes for disposal to a facility licensed in accordance with the requirements equivalent to those in the 10 CFR Part 61 by NRC, an agreement state, or a licensing state; or

(iv)

in accordance with alternate methods authorized by the agency having jurisdiction to regulate such wastes.

(F)

Notification to the agency.

(i)

Each licensee shall notify the agency, in writing, immediately following the filing of a voluntary or involuntary petition for bankruptcy by or against:

(I)

a licensee;

(II)

an entity controlling a licensee or listing the license of the licensee as property of the estate; or

(III)

an affiliate of the licensee.

(ii)

This notification shall include:

(I)

the bankruptcy court in which the petition for bankruptcy was filed;

(II)

the name of the entity in bankruptcy; and

(III)

the date of the filing of the petition.

(2)

Quality control, labeling, and reports of transfer. Each person licensed under subsection (k)(4) of this section shall:

(A)

carry out adequate control procedures in manufacturing the material or product to assure that each production lot meets the quality control standards approved by the agency;

(B)

label or mark each unit to identify the manufacturer, processor, producer, or commercial distributor of the material or product and the NORM in the material or product; and

(C)

maintain records identifying, by name and address, each person to whom NORM is transferred for use under subsection (d)(4) of this section or the equivalent requirements of another licensing state, and stating the kinds, quantities, and uses of NORM transferred. An annual summary report stating the total quantity of each radionuclide transferred under the specific license shall be filed with the agency. Each report shall cover the year ending December 31, and shall be filed within 30 days thereafter. If no transfers of radioactive material have been made in accordance with (k)(4) of this section during the reporting period, the report shall so indicate.

(p)

Expiration and termination of licenses.

(1)

Except as provided in paragraph (6) of this subsection and subsection (q)(2) of this section, each specific license shall expire at the end of the specified day in the month and year stated in the license.

(2)

Each licensee shall notify the agency immediately, in writing, and request termination of the license when the licensee decides to terminate all activities involving materials authorized under the license or when the licensee decides to terminate a licensed location. This notification and request for termination of the license or a licensed location must include the reports and information specified in paragraph (4)(D) of this subsection. The licensee is subject to the provisions of paragraphs (3)-(5) of this subsection, as applicable.

(3)

No less than 30 days before the expiration date specified in a specific license, the licensee shall either:

(A)

submit an application for license renewal under subsection (q) of this section; or

(B)

notify the agency in writing, under paragraph (2) of this subsection, if the licensee decides to discontinue all activities involving NORM.

(4)

If a licensee terminates a licensed location or if a licensee does not submit an application for license renewal under subsection (q) of this section, the licensee shall, before a licensed location can be removed from the license, or on or before the expiration date specified in the license:

(A)

terminate use of NORM;

(B)

properly dispose of NORM; and

(C)

submit a record of NORM disposal and radiation survey(s) to confirm the absence of NORM or to establish the levels of residual radioactive contamination. The licensee shall, as appropriate:

(i)

submit a record of disposal of radioactive material and radiation survey(s) of the licensee's permanent location of use or storage. Levels of radiation shall be reported in units as required by subsection (w) of this section; and

(ii)

specify the instruments(s) used and certify that each instrument is properly calibrated and tested.

(5)

If no radioactivity attributable to activities conducted under the license is detected, the licensee shall submit a certification that no detectable radioactive contamination exceeding the levels listed in subsections (d)(1) and (w) of this section was found. If the agency determines that the information submitted under this paragraph and paragraph (4)(D) of this subsection is adequate and surveys conducted by the agency confirm the findings, the agency will notify the licensee in writing that the license is terminated.

(6)

If detectable levels of residual radioactivity attributable to activities conducted under the license are found, the requirements of the license continue in effect beyond the expiration date, if necessary, with respect to possession of residual NORM until the agency notifies the licensee in writing that the requirements of the license have been completed. During this time, the licensee is subject to the provisions of paragraph (7) of this subsection. In addition to the information submitted under paragraph (4)(D) of this subsection, the licensee shall submit a plan, if appropriate, for decontaminating the location(s) and disposing of the residual NORM.

(7)

Each licensee who possesses residual radioactive material under paragraph (6) of this subsection, following the expiration date specified in the license, shall:

(A)

be limited to actions involving NORM related to preparing the location(s) for release for unrestricted use; and

(B)

continue to control entry to restricted areas until the location(s) is suitable for release for unrestricted use and the release is approved by the agency in writing.

(q)

Renewal of licenses.

(1)

Applications for renewal of specific licenses shall be filed in accordance with subsection (j) of this section.

(2)

If a licensee has filed the appropriate application form for renewal (or for a new license authorizing the same activities) at least 30 days prior to the expiration date of the existing license, that license shall not expire until final action by the agency.

(r)

Amendment of licenses at request of licensee. Applications for amendment of a license shall be filed in writing and in accordance with subsection (j)(2)-(6) of this section and shall specify how the licensee desires the license to be amended and the grounds for such amendment.

(s)

Agency action on applications to renew and amend. In considering an application by a licensee to renew, amend, or transfer the license, the agency will apply the criteria set forth in subsection (k) of this section.

(t)

Modification and revocation of licenses. Modification, suspension, and revocation of licenses shall be in accordance with §289.205 of this title.

(u)

Reciprocal recognition of licenses. Subject to this section, any person who holds a specific license from any licensing state, and issued by the agency having jurisdiction where the licensee maintains an office for directing the licensed activity and at which radiation safety records are normally maintained, is hereby granted a general license to conduct the activities authorized in such licensing document within the state of Texas provided that:

(1)

the requirements in §289.252(s) of this title are met; and

(2)

the out-of-state licensee shall not transfer or dispose of NORM possessed or used under the general license provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection except by transfer to a person:

(A)

specifically licensed by the agency, the Texas agency authorized to regulate disposal of NORM waste, or by another licensing state to receive such material; or

(B)

exempt from the requirements for a license for such material under subsection (d) of this section.

(v)

Financial security requirements.

(1)

Each person specifically licensed in accordance with this section for possession of NORM shall comply with the financial security requirements of §289.252(u) of this title.

(2)

On April 11, 1999, current licenses in effect may continue provided that the required security arrangements be submitted to the agency by October 11, 1999.

(3)

No later than 90 days after the licensee notifies the agency that decontamination and decommissioning have been completed, the agency shall determine if these have been conducted in accordance with the requirements of this section and the conditions of the license. If the agency finds that the requirements have been met, the Director of the Radiation Control Program shall direct the return or release of the licensee's security in full plus any accumulated interest. If the agency finds that the requirements have not been met, the agency will notify the licensee of the steps necessary for compliance.

(w)

Acceptable surface contamination levels for NORM. The following table is to be used in determining compliance with subsections (f)(2) and (p) of this section.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.259(w)

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901682

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 11, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


Subchapter E. Registration Regulations

25 TAC §289.230

The Texas Department of Health (department) adopts the repeal of §289.230 without changes and new §289.230 concerning certification of mammography systems and accreditation of mammography facilities with changes to the proposed text as published in the December 4, 1998, issue of the Texas Register (23 TexReg 12153), as a result of comments received during the 30-day comment period. The repeal of §289.230 is adopted without changes and therefore will not be republished.

The existing §289.230 is repealed due to the significant revisions of text to incorporate the final federal Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA) requirements published in the October 28, 1997, issue of the Federal Register , Volume 62, No. 208, 55860, corrections published in the November 10, 1997, issue of the Federal Register , Volume 62, No. 217, 60614, and additional corrections published in the October 22, 1998, issue of the Federal Register , Volume 63, Number 204, 56555. The new section adds new and clarifying language on state requirements concerning stereotactic biopsy systems, terminations, and items to be included in operating and safety procedures. The new section also includes additional fees for reevaluation of phantom images and a provision for reimbursement of actual expenses for on-site visits required after three denials of accreditation. Other grammatical changes are made to the section for clarification.

The department is making the following changes due to staff comments to clarify the intent and improve the accuracy of the section.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(c)(56), the department changed the word "advent" to "event."

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(1)(B)(ii), the department changed the reference to (A)(iii) instead of (A)(iv).

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(1)(C), the department reformatted the subparagraph to more clearly delineate the continuing education and experience requirements and the time frame for completing them.

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(A), the department replaced the word "General" with the word "Initial" to be consistent with similar subparagraph titles in this subsection.

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(B), the department replaced the word "general" with the word "initial" to be consistent with the title in §289.230(f)(2)(A).

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(C), the department reformatted the subparagraph to more clearly delineate the continuing education and experience requirements and the time frame for completing them.

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(3), the department replaced the words "systems in accordance with this section" with the word "equipment" to be consistent with the definition of "medical physicist." This change clarifies that physicians and medical radiologic technologists are not included.

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(A), the department replaced the word "system" with the word "equipment" to be consistent with the definition of "medical physicist." This change clarifies that physicians and medical radiologic technologists are not included.

Change: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(C), the department reformatted the subparagraph to more clearly delineate the continuing education and experience requirements and the time frame for completing them.

Change: Concerning §289.230(i)(1)(D), the department added the words, "using the final assessment categories" prior to the words, "as defined in subsection..." for clarification. The department corrected the reference from subsection (b) to subsection (c).

Change: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(C)(i), the department changed "(l)(5)-(6)" to "(l)(5) and (7)" to be consistent throughout the section and to correct the reference change because of renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(C)(ii), the department changed the reference from "(l)(10)" to "(l)(11)" because of renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning new §289.230(k)(1)(C)(iv), the department changed the reference from "(l)(9)" to "(l)(10)" because of renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(D), the department changed the reference from "(l)(6), (8), and (11)" to "(l)(7), (9), and (12)" because of renumbering in subsection (l) and added the reference to "(l)(14)". The reference to (l)(14) reflects the addition of the new paragraph on infection control.

Change: Concerning §289.230(l)(1)(D), the department moved this subparagraph because the paragraph addresses daily quality control tests and densitometer and sensitometer tests are not performed at that frequency. Change is reflected in §289.230(l)(6). The subsequent subparagraph was renumbered to reflect the deletion.

Change: Concerning §289.230(l)(4)(B), the department changed the second sentence to read "The entire area of the cassette that may be clinically exposed shall be tested." A third sentence was added to read, "This shall include all cassettes used for mammography in the facility." These changes were made to clarify the intent.

Change: Concerning §289.230(l)(6), the department moved the subparagraph on densitometer and sensitometer calibration to this paragraph in order to correctly reflect the frequency of calibration. Paragraphs (l)(6) through (l)(12) were renumbered to reflect this change.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(l)(8), the department changed the reference from "(l)(6)" to "(l)(7)" to reflect the renumbering in this subsection.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(l)(9), the department changed the reference from "(l)(7)" to "(l)(8)" to reflect the renumbering in this subsection.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(l)(9)(B)(x), the department changed the reference from "(6)" to "(7)" to reflect the renumbering in this subsection.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(l)(9)(B)(xi), the department changed the reference from "(7)" to "(8)" to reflect the renumbering in this subsection.

Change: Concerning new §289.230(l)(10)(A)(i), the department changed the reference from "(5) and (6)" to "(5) and (7)" to reflect the renumbering in this subsection. The department added the words, "and (8) (if applicable)" to indicate that reports on mobile services must be included if the facility has or is a mobile service.

Change: Concerning §289.230(q)(9), the department changed the reference from "(l)(7)" to "(l)(8)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(q)(10), the department changed the reference from "(l)(8)" to "(l)(9)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(q)(11), the department changed the reference from "(l)(9)" to "(l)(10)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(t)(5)(A), the department deleted this subparagraph because the requirements for a quality assurance program are delineated in rule and do not need to be submitted with the application for departmental review. The subsequent subparagraphs were renumbered to reflect the deletion.

Change: Concerning §289.230(w)(2)(F), the department deleted this subparagraph because the requirements for a quality assurance program and operating and safety procedures are delineated in rule and do not need to be submitted for departmental review.

Change: Concerning §289.230(w)(4)(B), the department changed the reference from "(l)(9)" to "(l)(10)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(w)(4)(C), the department added the sentence, "If the use period will exceed 60 days, the facility shall add the unit to their certification and a prorated fee will be assessed" following the words "period of use" for clarification.

Change: Concerning §289.230(w)(4)(D), the department deleted the word "loaner" to clarify that this subparagraph is addressing units used for clinical trial evaluations.

Change: Concerning §289.230(dd)(1), the department changed the reference "(f)-(g)" to "(f) and (g)" to be consistent throughout the section. The department corrected the references by adding "(hh)" following the reference "(ee)".

Change: Concerning §289.230(dd)(2)(E)(iii)(I), the department changed the reference from "(l)(9)" to "(l)(10)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(dd)(2)(E)(iii)(II), the department changed the reference from "(l)(10)" to "(l)(11)" to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(nn)(3), the department changed references to the paragraphs in subsection (l) to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

Change: Concerning §289.230(nn)(4)(K), the department changed the reference from (l)(11) to (l)(12) to reflect the renumbering in subsection (l).

The following comments were received concerning the proposed section. Following each comment is the department's response and any resulting change(s).

Comment: Concerning §289.230 in general, the commenter stated that the proposed changes in large part incorporate the quality mammography standards of the MQSA. Subsequent to the publication of those rules and in response to the large number of questions raised by their publication, the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has begun the drafting of compliance guidance documents. The commenter questioned if it is the intention of the State of Texas to allow registrants to follow the guidance provided by the FDA when it affects an MQSA rule that was incorporated into the Texas Regulations for Control of Radiation.

Response: Registrants will be allowed to follow guidance provided by the FDA if the guidance is not in conflict with Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401. No change was made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §289.230 in general, the commenter stated that all the detail in the present proposed mammography rules is unnecessary and causes major difficulties for users because of subtle differences with the FDA rules. The commenter suggested simplifying the whole process by simply stating the following: "All mammography facilities will abide by rules of the FDA Quality Mammography Standards." The commenter further stated that this would greatly simplify the process and be just as effective. The commenter indicated making users plow through state rules as well as FDA rules is totally unnecessary, confusing, costly and burdensome, and nothing but bureaucratic fussing.

Response: Although they differ from the MQSA, certain aspects of the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, concerning mammography certification, have to be followed by the department and implemented through these rules. No change was made as a result of the comments.

Comment: Concerning §289.230 in general, the commenter stated that there doesn't seem to be any provision for provisional accreditation.

Response: Provisional certification is issued by the FDA, not the state. Provisional accreditation is not granted by any accreditation body. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(a), the commenter stated that it is not clear that Texas does not regulate federal agencies and suggested that this be clarified.

Response: A final sentence was added to indicate that this section does not apply to an entity under the jurisdiction of the federal government. Change is reflected in §289.230(b).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(5), the commenter stated that FDA reworded this definition and suggested that the department should also revise the language.

Response: The department deleted the "=" sign between the word "rad" and "114 roentgens" and added the words, "In air, 1 Gy of absorbed dose is delivered by" for clarification.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(12), the commenter stated that not all continuing medical education units (CMEU) approved by medical organizations are classified as Category I. The commenter suggested that this be clarified.

Response: The words "designated as Category I" were added after the words "Educational activities" for clarification.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(13), the commenter stated that it would be useful to add words to this definition or to define MQSA certification to distinguish state certification from MQSA certification as both are required.

Response: The words "state certification" are included in parentheses in this definition. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(16), the commenter stated that the definition of "contact hour" must be brought into agreement with the MQSA definition so that there is no misunderstanding of the meaning.

Response: The MQSA language for this definition was inserted and the previous language deleted.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(21), the commenter stated that if the term "instructor-directed activities" is to be used, it needs to be defined in a way as to be no less stringent than the MQSA definition of "direct instruction."

Response: To be consistent with MQSA, the definition of contact hour that contained the term "instructor-directed activities" was revised. This is reflected in §289.230(c)(16). A definition for "direct instruction" has been added. This change is reflected in the new §289.230(c)(21). Proposed paragraphs (c)(21) through (c)(27) were renumbered to reflect this change.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(24), the commenter stated that it is not clear that Texas does not regulate federal agencies and suggested that this be clarified.

Response: A final sentence was added to indicate that this section does not apply to an entity under the jurisdiction of the federal government. Change is reflected in §289.230(b).

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(27), the commenter stated that this definition is more stringent than MQSA as it bars acceptance of all self-study programs. MQSA regulations do allow acceptance of those that meet certain conditions. The commenter further stated that if the term "instructor-directed activities" is to be used, it needs to be defined in a way as to be no less stringent than the MQSA definition of "direct instruction."

Response: The term "formal training" is used in the MQSA and Texas regulations to address training by interpreting physicians to read and interpret mammograms. Texas does not allow self-study training for "formal training" of physicians. Self-study is allowed for physicians, technologists, and physicists for continuing education. To be consistent with MQSA rules, this definition was revised to include the words "direct instruction." MQSA regulations allows state rules to be more stringent. No other change was made to the rule as a result of this comment.

Comment: Concerning proposed §289.230(c)(28), the commenter stated that the term "interpreting physician" is out of order.

Response: The definition was placed in correct alphabetical order. Change is reflected in new §289.230(c)(32). Proposed paragraphs (c)(32) through (c)(63) were renumbered to reflect this change.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(30), the commenter stated that the Mammography Quality Standards Reauthorization Act used the term "review interpreting physicians" for doctors performing these reviews. The commenter further stated that FDA will be using this new term and suggested that the rule be changed to be consistent with MQSA.

Response: The definition was revised to include the word "review" prior to the word "physicians," to be consistent with MQSA rules.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(c)(31), the commenter stated that this term, "institutional review board," applies in other areas besides mammography. The commenter suggested that it should be in a more general location in the regulations.

Response: The term is defined in another section that addresses all radiography other than mammography. The department has included it in this section because of its importance and significance. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(37), the commenter suggested deleting "on film, paper, or digital display" and stated that it is fruitless to attempt to anticipate all technological evolutions. The commenter further stated that the essence of the definition is that mammography is a means of imaging the breast based on using x-radiation and the means of image presentation does not enhance the definition.

Response: The department deleted the words, "on film, paper, or digital display" from the definition.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(37)(B), the commenter suggested that the second "investigation" should be "investigational."

Response: The department made the grammatical correction.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(38), the commenter suggested changing "or" to "and" to be consistent with the MQSA definition and with the use of the plural form "Examples are," that starts the sentence.

Response: The department changed the language to be consistent with the MQSA definition.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(40), the commenter questioned if the term "mammography system" is used anywhere else in the regulations and if not, is it needed. The commenter further questioned that if it is used, why aren't physicists included along with doctors and technologists as part of the system.

Response: The term is used throughout the rule. "Mammography system" is defined in the Texas Radiation Control Act and does not include the word "physicist." No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(44), the commenter stated that it is assumed that the words "medical radiologic technologist" is a term used elsewhere in the Texas regulations and is used in this section to be consistent. The commenter suggested that if this is not the case, the term "radiologic technologist" might be used for consistency and to avoid confusion with the MQSA rules.

Response: The term, "medical radiologic technologist," is defined by Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4512. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(c)(60), the commenter questioned if it truly is the intent to use the word "system" as it puts the medical physicist in the position of evaluating the technologist as well as the interpreting physician.

Response: The department deleted the words, "mammography system and" and replaced them with "facility" to be consistent with the FDA MQSA definition.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(d)(1), the commenter questioned putting this prohibition in this section away from the equipment requirements as registrants will have to look in two places for equipment regulations. The commenter further stated that the citations for the Texas equipment regulations are just one number off from the citations for the equivalent MQSA requirement. The commenter questioned if the advantage of having it in this section outweighs the disadvantages.

Response: The department puts prohibitions in one subsection of each section. There have been no disadvantages noted with this practice. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(d)(3), the commenter suggested it would be helpful to define the term, "useful beam."

Response: This term has been used in regulation for many years and there has been no question as to the meaning from the registrants in this state. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(e)(3), the commenter suggested that the term "unique mammographic imaging modalities" needs to be defined or possibly changed to "research or investigation" to make it clear what devices are being discussed and thus show that this requirement is not less stringent than MQSA rules.

Response: The department deleted the words "or other unique mammographic imaging modalities." For clarification, another paragraph was added to indicate that mammography systems used exclusively for research or investigation are exempt from the requirements of this section. Change is reflected in new §289.230(e)(4). The subsequent paragraphs were renumbered to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(f)(1)(A)(i), the commenter stated that this requirement is more stringent than FDA by omitting the Canadian Board.

Response: The department's language is the same as that in the MQSA rules that allow other boards approved by the FDA. The FDA approved boards are not necessarily delineated in rule. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(1)(A)(ii), the commenter stated that the requirement that 15 of the 60 hours must be earned within the three years immediately prior to meeting the initial requirements must be added to be compatible with FDA.

Response: The department added the words, "At least 15 of the 60 hours shall have been acquired within three years immediately prior to the date that the physician qualified as an interpreting physician."

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(1)(B)(i), the commenter stated that it appeared that physicians who were from out of state could never meet the grandfathering requirements in §289.230(f)(1)(A) the way it was written, thereby making these rules much more stringent than the MQSA regulations. The commenter further stated that language needed to be added to clarify what requirements physicians were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements in §289.230(f)(1)(A).

Response: Language was added to (f)(1)(B)(i) to clarify the requirements physicians were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements delineated in §289.230(f)(1)(A). The requirement to hold a current Texas license was moved from §289.230(f)(1)(A)(i) to §289.230(f)(1) to allow grandfathering of physicians compatible with MQSA regulations. Subclauses I and II were combined into new clause §289.230(f)(1)(A)(i) to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(1)(C)(i) and (ii), the commenter stated that these requirements give the physician a 24 month period for continuing experience and 36 month period for continuing education after meeting their initial requirements before they have to start meeting the continuing requirements. The commenter further stated that these rules to not give a facility the option of choosing which of the alternatives to be used to determine the end date of the 24 or 36 months as do the MQSA rules.

Response: The language for time periods for continuing experience and education were revised to require physicians to begin meeting the continuing experience and education requirements upon completion of their initial requirements. Language was also added to give a facility the option of choosing one of the alternatives listed to determine the end date of the 24 and 36 month period for consistency with the MQSA rules. This change is reflected in §289.230(f)(1)(C).

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(f)(2)(A)(ii), the commenter stated that the wording of this subparagraph permits individuals who have met the initial technologist requirements, but not the continuing requirements, to provide direct supervision of trainees doing the 25 examinations. The commenter further stated that the MQSA rules include the 25 examinations in the 40 hours of training and these rules seem to require them separately.

Response: The words, "subparagraph (A) of" were deleted and the words, "the qualifications of" were added to clarify that technologists who provide direct supervision must meet the requirements including the continuing requirements. Language was added to allow the 25 mammographic examinations to be obtained concurrently with the 40 hours of contact training. The hours for the examinations are not to exceed 16 hours.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(B), the commenter stated that it appeared that technologists who were from out of state could never meet the grandfathering requirements in §289.230(f)(2)(A) the way it was written, thereby making these rules much more stringent than the MQSA regulations. The commenter further stated that language needed to be added to clarify what requirements technologists were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements in §289.230(f)(2)(A).

Response: The requirement to hold a current Texas certification was moved from §289.230(f)(2)(A)(i) to §289.230(f)(2) for clarification. Language was added to (f)(2)(B) to clarify the requirements technologists were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements delineated in §289.230(f)(2)(A). Subsequent clauses were renumbered to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(C)(i) and (ii), the commenter stated that these requirements give the technologist a 24 month period for continuing experience and 36 month period for continuing education after meeting their initial requirements before they have to start meeting the continuing requirements. The commenter further stated that these rules to not give a facility the option of choosing which of the alternatives to be used to determine the end date of the 24 or 36 months as do the MQSA rules.

Response: The language for time periods for continuing experience and education were revised to require technologists to begin meeting the continuing experience and education requirements upon completion of their initial requirements. Language was also added to give a facility the option of choosing one of the alternatives listed to determine the end date of the 24 and 36 month period for consistency with the MQSA rules. This change is reflected in §289.230(f)(2)(C).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(2)(C)(ii), the FDA issued corrections to the final MQSA rules on the continuing experience requirements for a radiologic technologist to include adding the words "preceding the facility's annual inspection" after "last day of the calender quarter," changing the October 27, 1997, date to April 28, 1999, and adding the words "whichever is later."

Response: The department added the FDA language on continuing experience requirements for radiologic technologists. Change is reflected in §289.230(f)(2)(C) and §289.230(f)(2)(C)(ii).

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(f)(3)(A)(iii), the commenter stated the requirement must be added that after April 28, 1999, experience conducting surveys must be acquired under the direct supervision of a physicist who meets all the requirements of subparagraphs (A) and (C) to make the rules consistent with the MQSA rules.

Response: The department revised the language to include physicists who supervise must meet the requirements of §289.230(f)(3)(A) and (C).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(B), the commenter stated that it appeared that physicists who were from out of state could never meet the grandfathering requirements in §289.230(f)(3)(A) the way it was written, thereby making these rules much more stringent than the MQSA regulations. The commenter further stated that language needed to be added to clarify what requirements physicists were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements in §289.230(f)(3)(A) or to meet the alternative initial qualifications in §289.230(f)(3)(B). The commenter stated that as written, this subparagraph allows the physicist to complete the requirements in clauses (i), (ii), and (iii) after April 28, 1999. The commenter further stated that under the MQSA regulations, all parts of the alternative initial qualifications must be completed before April 28, 1999.

Response: The requirement to hold a current Texas license and to hold a registration with the agency was moved from §289.230(f)(3)(A)(i) and (ii) to §289.230(f)(3) for clarification. Subsequent clauses were renumbered to reflect the change. Language was added to (f)(3)(B) to clarify requirements physicists were required to meet prior to April 28, 1999, in order to be exempt from the initial requirements delineated in §289.230(f)(3)(A), and to clarify that alternative initial qualifications must be met prior to April 28, 1999.

Comment: Concerning proposed §289.230(f)(3)(C)(ii), the commenter stated that the word "education" on the fourth line of this requirement should actually be "experience."

Response: This clause has been deleted and replaced with new language. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(C)(i) and (ii), the commenter stated that these requirements give the physicist a 24 month period for continuing experience and 36 month period for continuing education after meeting their initial requirements before they have to start meeting the continuing requirements. The commenter further stated that these rules to not give a facility the option of choosing which of the alternatives to be used to determine the end date of the 24 or 36 months as do the MQSA rules.

Response: The language for time periods for continuing experience and education were revised to require physicists to begin meeting the continuing experience and education requirements upon completion of their initial requirements. Language was also added to give a facility the option of choosing one of the alternatives listed to determine the end date of the 24 and 36 month period for consistency with the MQSA rules. This change is reflected in §289.230(f)(3)(C).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(C)(ii), the FDA issued corrections to the final MQSA rules on the continuing experience requirements for a medical physicist to include adding the words "preceding the facility's annual inspection" after "last day of the calender quarter," changing the October 27, 1997, date to April 28, 1999, and adding the words "whichever is later."

Response: The department added the FDA language on continuing experience requirements for physicists. Change is reflected in §289.230(f)(3)(C) and §289.230(f)(3)(C)(ii).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(f)(3)(C)(iii), the commenter stated that the requirement of a specific number of hours goes beyond the MQSA requirements.

Response: The MQSA rules also require 8 hours of training prior to performing mammographic surveys on new mammographic modalities. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(1), the commenter suggested that the words "for mammography" in this requirement be deleted as they make the rule less stringent than the MQSA requirements that require that units meet all of the provisions of the cited parts of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), and not just the one or two related to mammography.

Response: The word "and" was added after "for mammography" to make it clear that equipment shall have been specifically designed and manufactured for mammography and in accordance with 21 CFR.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(2), the commenter stated that "although most readers will probably guess what "mechanism" is being referred to here, it would be useful to make it clear.

Response: The only "mechanism" being discussed is the tube-image receptor assembly and that is clear. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(3)(C), the commenter stated that this is more stringent than the MQSA regulations because it seems to require that all film-screen systems be capable of being used for magnification procedures while the MQSA regulations only apply to film-screen systems used for magnification.

Response: Language was added to clarify that this requirement only applies to systems used for magnification procedures.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(3)(D), the commenter stated that this is good advice, but it is a procedural requirement, not an equipment standard. The commenter suggested that if subsection (g) began "Only mammography systems...," then the task could be considered a requirement for the radiological technologist which is considered part of the "mammography system." The commenter indicated that this subsection refers to "x-ray systems," that are not defined in §289.230. The commenter further questioned how this rule would be enforced as the manufacturers of mammography cassettes have not installed timers that prevent their use until 15 minutes after loading. The commenter further suggested that perhaps it could be part of the technologist training and an attempt could be made to enforce that.

Response: The intent of the rule is to have adequate cassettes available to provide quality images for the patient. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(4), the commenter stated that this requirement is different from the proposed MQSA changes on beam limitation.

Response: This paragraph is the same as those in the MQSA rules. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(6), the commenter stated that this requirement is less stringent than the MQSA rules because it allows either the focal spot or the target material to be indicated instead of both.

Response: Language was added to delineate that both the focal spot and the target material must be selected. The subsequent paragraph was renumbered to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(g)(7), the commenter stated that the requirement for power driven compression devices that are to be effective October 28, 2002 have been left out and suggested that this be added.

Response: The department will consider a revision to the rule to include this language prior to the October 28, 2002 date. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(h), the commenter stated that the final MQSA regulations put no restrictions on who can examine self-referred patients.

Response: The department has required since 1994, that facilities have procedures to recommend to self-referred patients a means of selecting a physician if they do not have one. No change was made to the rule as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(i)(2), the commenter stated that as worded, this requires that the "results" be sent to patients and physicians, and the report described in paragraph (1) is not required to be sent to anyone.

Response: The words "the following" were deleted after the word "send" and the words "containing the information specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection" were added after the word "examination" in subparagraph (B). The word "to" was added after the word "examination." The word "to" was deleted from subparagraphs (A) and (B).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(i)(2), the commenter stated that as worded, reports in which the assessment is "suspicious" or "highly suggestive of malignancy," are sent in the same time frame as less serious assessments. The commenter suggested that more serious cases be treated with a greater sense of urgency than benign cases.

Response: The MQSA rules state that cases where the assessment is "suspicious" or "highly suggestive of malignancy" be sent "as soon as possible" and other reports be sent "as soon as possible" but no later than 30 days from the date of the mammogram. Because "as soon as possible" is not definitive, Texas rules included the 30 day time limit and uses this language for all reports. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(i)(2)(B), the commenter stated it should be more clearly defined who should get the mammography report.

Response: The word, "referring" was added before the word, "physicians" and the words, "or in the case of self-referral, to the physician indicated by the patient" were added after the word, "physicians" for clarification.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(i)(4)(C), the commenter stated that this requirement seems to say that a permanent transfer can be made only once every five or ten years as once the second physician or institution receives the records, they must keep them for the five or ten years and so must deny any further request for transfer during that period. If this was not intended, the commenter suggested that this be reworded.

Response: The word, "receiving" was inserted before the word, "institution" and the words, "unless permanently transferred or forwarded in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph" were added after the words "subparagraph (A) of this paragraph."

Comment: Concerning §289.230(j), the commenter stated that it would be useful to define what is meant by "first clinical" image. The commenter questions if this is the first clinical image taken with the unit, or the first one taken with the unit on a given day, or the first one taken with the unit at a given location. The commenter further states that probably what the requirement actually intends is that "all clinical images must be processed within 24 hours of being taken."

Response: The wording in the rule is self-explanatory. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(A)(ii), the commenter stated that the requirement for reviewing and documenting the technologists' quality control test results at least every three months or more frequently if consistency has not yet been achieved is more stringent the MQSA rules.

Response: MQSA rules allow a state to be more stringent in their requirements. It is important that these quality assurance test results be reviewed by the lead interpreting physician. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(A)(iv), the commenter stated that the requirement that the lead interpreting physician shall verify the qualifications of individuals assigned quality assurance tasks must be added to this paragraph to make this subsection as stringent as the MQSA requirements. In addition, the commenter stated that the requirement for assigning the quality assurance tasks is more stringent than the MQSA rules.

Response: The words "and determining the individual's qualifications to perform" were added after the word "assigning." It is important that the lead interpreting physician be involved in assigning the quality assurance tasks. No further change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(C)(i), the commenter stated that it is not indicated that the physicist must include performance of the phantom image quality test and a review of all the tests performed by the quality control technologists.

Response: The words "and performing an image quality evaluation test in accordance with subsection (l)(2) of this section" were added. A clause with the words "reviewing the facility's quality assurance program; and" was added. Change is reflected in §289.230(k)(1)(C)(iii). The subsequent clause was renumbered to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(k)(1)(D), the commenter stated that the requirement that it is the responsibility of the quality control technologist to assure that all tasks not assigned to the lead interpreting physician or the physicist are performed properly must be added.

Response: The words "or other personnel qualified to perform the tasks as" were deleted from the first sentence. The words "the quality assurance tasks in accordance with subparagraph (A)(iv) of this paragraph, the quality assurance technologist shall ensure that the requirements of (l)(1)-(4), (7), (9), (12), and (14) are met" were added.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(k)(2), the FDA issued corrections to the final MQSA rules including the section on quality assurance records. In the first sentence, the FDA deleted the word "and" between "safety and protection," added a comma after both "safety" and "protection," added the word "and" after protection, and moved the words "employee qualifications to meet assigned quality assurance tasks."

Response: The department made the suggested changes to this paragraph.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(1), the commenter stated that the second sentence of this introductory paragraph is in conflict with the correction made to this requirement in the FDA amendments of October 22, 1998. The commenter further stated that whether the requirement is more or less stringent than the amended MQSA requirement can be argued both ways but it would probably be best to change it to the amended MQSA wording.

Response: The language in the correction is confusing. The department deleted the words "examinations are," and added the words, "mammography is," from the second sentence for clarification.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(1)(A)(i), several commenters stated that neither the FDA nor the American College of Radiology (ACR) recommends that the base plus fog be allowed to change by plus or minus 0.03 optical density (OD). The commenter suggests deleting "or minus."

Response: The department deleted the words "or minus."

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(1)(B), the commenter questioned why the restrictions on the use of the backup processor are more stringent than those on the use of the primary processor. The commenter stated that the primary processor must pass the processor performance test before clinical films are processed, but the backup processor must pass a phantom image test before the first patient is exposed. The commenter further stated that failure of the phantom image test does not necessarily indicate a problem with the processor, but could be related to other equipment problems. The commenter recommended that the primary and the backup processors be treated identically and be required to pass the processor performance tests before processing clinical images.

Response: Since a back-up processor has not been used routinely for mammography images, the facility has to have the capability of determining if the processor would impact an image because of artifacts. This can be determined more readily using a phantom image rather than running unexposed mammography film through the processor. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(1)(B), the commenter stated that the language on the backup processor "other than the one commonly in use" was intended to mean "other than the one commonly in use for mammography." The commenter suggested that the words "for mammography" be added.

Response: The words "for mammography" were added to the sentence after the words "commonly in use" for clarification.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(1)(D), the commenter stated that this appears to be partially redundant with the introductory statement in §289.230(l)(1) and suggested that this paragraph be deleted.

Response: The paragraph is included for clarification. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(2)(C), the commenter stated that this appears to be partially redundant with the statements on phantom images in §289.230(l)(2)(A) and (B) and suggested that this be revised and the language on the phantom image deleted.

Response: The language is included for clarification. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(3), the commenter stated that by specifying the maximum duration between the performance of the quarterly tests in this subsection, Texas has closed off the option of allowing a little leeway in issuing citations in situations where extenuating circumstances may cause a facility to take a longer time between tests. The MQSA regulations do not specify such maximum durations and Texas itself did not for the weekly test. The commenter suggested that Texas may wish to consider whether their regulations should be changed to provide similar flexibility.

Response: This paragraph addresses quarterly quality control tests and states that these tests shall be performed within the calendar quarter at an interval not to exceed 90 days. The language is standard throughout the regulations and is accepted by our registrants. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(3)(B), several commenters stated that the National Mammography Quality Assurance Advisory Committee struggled with whether or not to impose a limit on repeat rates. One commenter further stated that limits were also proposed in comments to the FDA on the proposed final rules. In response to these comments, FDA observed that it has long been recognized that the parameter with the greatest impact on the repeat or reject rate is the subjective opinion of the physicians doing the interpreting as to what is acceptable. Additionally, one commenter indicated that as noted in the preamble to the proposed FDA rules (see 61 Federal Register 14860), the repeat or reject rate could be reduced by a facility through acceptance of lower quality films. The commenters stated that if a repeat rate of less than 5.0% is required by regulation, it will be achieved, but this does not necessarily mean that the quality of mammography will have improved and there is a good chance that it could have gotten worse.

Response: The department added the MQSA requirement to determine the reason for a change of more than 2.0% of the total reject rate to avoid confusion between state and federal requirements. The department further clarified the requirement by placing an upper limit on the total repeat or reject rate and specifying when corrective actions are to be taken and documented.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(4), the commenter stated that by specifying the maximum duration between the performance of the semiannual tests in this subsection, that Texas has closed off the option of allowing a little leeway in issuing citations in situations where extenuating circumstances may cause a facility to take a longer time between tests. The MQSA regulations do not specify such maximum durations and Texas itself did not for the weekly test. The commenter suggested that Texas may wish to consider whether their regulations should be changed to provide similar flexibility.

Response: This paragraph addresses semiannual quality control tests and states that these tests shall be performed within the calendar quarter at an interval not to exceed six months. The language is standard throughout the regulations and is accepted by our registrants. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(4)(C), the FDA issued corrections to the final MQSA rules that state effective October 28, 2002, the maximum compression force for the initial power drive shall be between 111 Newtons (25 pounds) and 200 Newtons (45 pounds). Several commenters suggested that this be added to the regulations now.

Response: The department will consider such a change in a future revision of the rule prior to October 28, 2002. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5), the commenter stated that if Texas wishes to place in regulation a maximum time period between the performance of the "annual test," it would need to be 12 months instead of 13 to be consistent with federal rules.

Response: The time period was changed to 12 months.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5), the commenter stated that by specifying the maximum duration between the performance of the tests in this subsection, that Texas has closed off the option of allowing a little leeway in issuing citations in situations where extenuating circumstances may cause a facility to take a longer time between tests. The MQSA regulations do not specify such maximum durations and Texas itself did not for the weekly test. The commenter suggested that Texas may wish to consider whether their regulations should be changed to provide similar flexibility.

Response: This paragraph addresses annual quality control tests and states that these tests shall be performed within the calendar quarter at an interval not to exceed 12 months. The language is standard throughout the regulations and is accepted by our registrants. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(A), the commenter stated that the requirement that the optical density of the film in the center of the phantom image shall not be less than 1.2 should be added to make the rules consistent with the MQSA rules. The commenter further stated that the requirements for the AEC will change effective October 28, 2002, and suggested that this be added to the rule.

Response: The requirement that the optical density of the film in the center of the phantom image shall not be less than 1.2 was added. The subparagraph was reformatted for clarity. Change is reflected in §289.230(l)(5)(A)(ii). The department will consider the additional change in a future revision of the rule prior to October 28, 2002. No other change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(C), the commenter stated that the requirements for evaluating focal spot condition will change effective October 28, 2002, and suggested that this be added to the rule.

Response: The department will consider such a change in a future revision of the rule prior to October 28, 2002. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(C)(i)(I), the commenter indicated that "millimeters" should be "millimeter."

Response: The department made the correction.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(C)(ii), the commenter stated that the "nominal focal spot" is the "dimensionless numerical value having a specific relation to the dimensions of the effective focal spot of an x-ray tube," as stated in the National Electrical Manufacturer's Association Standard XR5-1992. The commenter suggested that the dimensions "(mm)" should be deleted from the first column of the table.

Response: The "mm" unit of dimension is consistent with that being used by the FDA. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(G)(i), the FDA has proposed a change to its final rules that replaces current language with, "All systems shall have beam-limiting devices that allow the entire chest wall edge of the x-ray field to extend to the chest wall edge of the image receptor and provide means to assure that the x-ray field does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor by more than two percent of the SID."

Response: The department replaced the current language with the proposed FDA language for consistency with the federal requirements.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(G)(i), the commenter stated that the radiation field collimation should be changed to permit the collimators to extend beyond the receptor, but not beyond the cassette platform in the anterior, left, and right sides. The commenter further stated that this is necessary to be consistent with the FDA rules and to avoid making clear borders on the film which can cause visualization problems as well as cut off breast tissue that should be imaged. The commenter indicated that the rule as it currently is written is contrary to the health interests of the patients.

Response: The department replaced the current language with the proposed FDA language for consistency with the federal requirements..

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(J), the commenter stated that the requirements for radiation output capabilities will change effective October 28, 2002, and suggested that this be added to the rule.

Response: The department will consider such a change in a future revision of the rule prior to October 28, 2002. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(l)(5)(L), the commenter stated that this measurement condition is located so far after the three tests to which it applies that it increases the chances that it will be overlooked for one or more of the tests. The commenter suggested that this may be a situation where the use of a few extra words to give the condition with each test will be compensated for by a better understanding of the requirements.

Response: Adding the parameters to each of the three tests would be redundant. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(9)(B), the commenter stated that the addition of darkroom fog to the list of tests whose failure requires correction before the failed component of the system is used for patient films must be added to make the rules as stringent as MQSA. The commenter further stated that the tests for AEC, focal spot condition, and reproducibility are no longer on the MQSA list.

Response: The darkroom fog test was added to the list. Change is reflected in (l)(9)(B)(iii). The department will retain the tests for AEC, focal spot condition, and reproducibility. Subsequent clauses were renumbered to reflect the change.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(10)(A)(i), the commenter stated that it is not indicated that the physicist must include performance of the phantom image quality test and a review of all the tests performed by the quality control technologists.

Response: The reference to "2" was added before the reference to "5" to indicate that the physicist must perform the phantom image quality test and submit a report. The word "and" was deleted after the first "subsection," and the words, "and a review of the facility's quality assurance program in accordance with subsection (k)(1)(C)(iii) of this section" were added after the last "subsection."

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(11), the FDA issued corrections to the final MQSA rules on mammography equipment evaluations and is replacing the word "dissembled" with "disassembled."

Response: The department made the correction.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(11)(A), the commenter questions the meaning of the second sentence of this subparagraph and interprets this to mean the dose measurement can wait up to 60 days after the tube or tube insert replacement is performed. If this is the case, it is in conflict with both the MQSA rules and the remainder of §289.230(l)(11). If the intent is that the dose be measured a second time within 60 days, this needs to be reworded for clarification.

Response: The second sentence of this subparagraph on dose measurement has been deleted.

Comment: Concerning new §289.230(l)(14), the commenter stated that the infection control requirements must be covered in some way in the regulations if Texas is to become an FDA approved accreditation body using MQSA authority.

Response: Language on infection control was added in new §289.230(l)(14).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(n), the commenter states that "physician's's" should be "physician's."

Response: The department made the correction.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(p), the commenter stated that the human research requirement applies more generally in areas other than mammography. The commenter suggested that it should be in a more general location in the regulations.

Response: The department has included it in this section as well as in the general radiography section because of its significance. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(q)(3), the commenter stated there is a reference to subsection (e) and no such subsection exists.

Response: The reference is to subsection (d)(2) and (3), which is correct. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(q)(4), the commenter stated there is a reference to subsection (e)(3) and (4) and no such subsection exists.

Response: Subsection (e) is correct; however, the reference to subsection (e)(3) and (4) should be (e)(5) and (6).

Comment: Concerning §289.230(q)(6), the commenter stated there is a reference to subsection (g)(15) and no such paragraph exists.

Response: The reference to subsection (g)(15) is correct. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(t), the commenter stated that it would be helpful to make clear that Texas certificates and inspections against Texas standards are being referred to in this section and that FDA certificates and inspections that have different rules are also needed. The commenter further stated that this was mentioned in §289.230(a)(1) but that was many pages earlier.

Response: Certification as defined in subsection §289.230(c) delineates state certification. FDA certification is issued by FDA. FDA inspections, or inspections against MQSA standards, are not conducted by the state so there is no need to include federal inspection rules within these regulations. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(x) through (dd), the commenter stated that it would be helpful to make clear that what is being discussed here are Texas certificates and inspections against Texas standards and that FDA certificates and inspections that have different rules are also needed. The commenter further stated that this was mentioned in §289.230(a)(1) but that was many pages earlier.

Response: Certification as defined in subsection §289.230(c) delineates state certification. FDA certification is issued by FDA. FDA inspections, or inspections against MQSA standards, are not conducted by the state so there is no need to include federal inspection rules within these regulations. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(dd)(1), the commenter stated that the accreditation mentioned in this paragraph is a prerequisite to receiving an FDA certificate and should be stated in the rules.

Response: FDA will issue the certificate and not the state. No change was made as a result of the comment.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(dd)(2)(E)(iii)(I) and (II), several commenters questioned whether it is necessary to have both a survey and an equipment evaluation within the last six months. The commenters stated that it would seem that if a survey were performed, an equipment evaluation would not be necessary and if there were no equipment modifications performed, the evaluation would not have been necessary. One commenter further stated that only if new equipment were recently installed is it likely that an evaluation may have been performed rather than a survey. One commenter suggested that either (I) or (II) would be sufficient.

Response: The words "if performed after the survey specified in subclause (I) of this clause" was added after the word "section" in subclause (II) to eliminate duplication and provide clarification.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(jj)(2), the commenter suggested that it might be clearer if written, " ...of the intent to deny and the facts warranting the denial and shall afford the applicant ..." The commenter stated that it seems that there are two elements that are included in the notice, the intent to deny and the facts warranting the denial, and two actions being performed by the agency, giving notice and affording.

Response: The department changed the language in this paragraph to reflect the comment. The department also deleted the words, "by personal service or by certified mail, return receipt requested," from the first sentence and added a new second sentence to more clearly state the intent of the words deleted from the first sentence.

Comment: Concerning §289.230(nn)(5)(B)(v), the commenter suggested "one/" could be deleted or the fraction written as "one-half."

Response: The department corrected the fraction.

Commenters included representatives from General Electric Medical Systems, the University of Texas Houston Medical School, and the United States Food and Drug Administration. The commenters were generally favorable of the rule as proposed; however, the commenters had questions or specific concerns, and offered suggestions for changes to the proposal as discussed in the summary of the comments.

The repeal is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901711

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 28, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236


The new section is adopted under the Health and Safety Code, Chapter 401, which provides the Texas Board of Health (board) with the authority to adopt rules and guidelines relating to the control of radiation; and §12.001, which provides the board the authority to adopt rules for its procedures and for the performance of each duty imposed by law on the board, the department, or the commissioner of health.

§289.230.Certification of Mammography Systems and Accreditation of Mammography Facilities.

(a)

Purpose.

(1)

This section provides for the certification of mammography systems and the accreditation of mammography facilities. No person shall use x-ray producing machines for mammography of humans except as authorized in a state certification of mammography systems issued by the agency in accordance with the requirements of this section and in a certificate issued by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

(2)

The use of all mammography machines certified in accordance with this section shall be by or under the supervision of a physician licensed by the Texas State Board of Medical Examiners with license in good standing.

(b)

Scope. In addition to the requirements of this section, all registrants are subject to the requirements of §289.201 of this title (relating to General Provisions), §289.202 of this title (relating to Standards for Protection Against Radiation), §289.203 of this title (relating to Notices, Instructions, and Reports to Workers; Inspections), §289.204 of this title (relating to Fees for Certificates of Registration, Radioactive Material(s) Licenses, Emergency Planning and Implementation, and Other Regulatory Services), §289.205 of this title (relating to Hearing and Enforcement Procedures), and §289.226 of this title (relating to Registration of Radiation Machine Use and Services). This section does not apply to an entity under the jurisdiction of the federal government.

(c)

Definitions. The following words and terms, when used in this section, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

(1)

Accreditation - An approval of a mammography facility by an accreditation body.

(2)

Accreditation body - An entity approved by the FDA under 42 United States Code §263b(e)(1)(A) to accredit mammography facilities.

(3)

Action limit - The minimum or maximum value of a quality assurance measurement representing acceptable performance. Values less than the minimum or greater than the maximum action limit indicate that corrective action must be taken by the facility.

(4)

Adverse event - An undesirable experience associated with mammography activities within the scope of this section. Adverse events include but are not limited to:

(A)

poor image quality;

(B)

failure to send mammography reports within 30 days to the referring physician or in a timely manner to the self-referred patient; and

(C)

use of personnel that do not meet the applicable requirements of subsection (f) of this section.

(5)

Air kerma - The kerma in a given mass of air. The unit used to measure the quantity of air kerma is the Gray (Gy). For x-rays with energies less than 300 kiloelectronvolts (keV), 1 Gy = 100 rad. In air, 1 Gy of absorbed dose is delivered by 114 roentgens (R) of exposure.

(6)

Automatic exposure control (AEC) - A device that automatically controls one or more technique factors in order to obtain at preselected locations a required quantity of radiation.

(7)

Average glandular dose - The value in millirad (mrad) or milligray (mGy) for a given breast or phantom thickness that estimates the average absorbed dose to the glandular tissue extrapolated from free air exposures and based on fixed filter thickness and target material.

(8)

Beam-limiting device - A device that provides a means to restrict the dimensions of the x-ray field.

(9)

Breast implant - A prosthetic device implanted in the breast.

(10)

Calendar quarter - Any one of the following time periods during a given year: January 1-March 31, April 1-June 30, July 1-September 30, or October 1-December 31.

(11)

Calibration of instruments - The comparative response or reading of an instrument relative to a series of known radiation values over the range of the instrument.

(12)

Category I continuing medical education units (CMEU) - Educational activities designated as Category I and approved by the Accreditation Council for Continuing Medical Education, the American Osteopathic Association, a state medical society, or an equivalent organization.

(13)

Certification of mammography systems (state certification) - A form of permission given by the agency to an applicant who has met the requirements for mammography system certification set out in the Act and this chapter.

(14)

Clinical image - See the definition for mammogram.

(15)

Consumer - An individual who chooses to comment or complain in reference to a mammography examination. The individual may be the patient or a representative of the patient, such as a family member or referring physician.

(16)

Contact hour - An hour of training received through direct instruction.

(17)

Continuing education - Acquiring contact hours by attendance and/or participation in lectures, conferences, or seminars. Continuing education hours may also be acquired in the following manner:

(A)

computer based instruction with a post test; or

(B)

reading approved articles with a post test.

(18)

Continuing education unit (CEU) - One contact hour of training.

(19)

Control panel - That part of the radiation machine control upon which are mounted the switches, knobs, push buttons, and other hardware necessary for manually setting the technique factors.

(20)

Dedicated mammographic equipment - Equipment that has been specifically designed and manufactured for mammography.

(21)

Direct instruction - Instruction that includes:

(A)

face-to-face interaction between instructor(s) and student(s), as when the instructor provides a lecture, conducts demonstrations, or reviews student performance; or

(B)

the administration and correction of student examinations by an instructor(s) with subsequent feedback to the student(s).

(22)

Direct supervision - Oversight of operations that include the following.

(A)

During joint interpretation of mammograms, the supervising interpreting physician reviews, discusses, and confirms the diagnosis of the physician being supervised and signs the resulting report before it is entered into the patient's record.

(B)

During performance of a mammography examination, the supervising medical radiologic technologist is present to observe and correct, as needed, the individual who is performing the examination.

(C)

During performance of a survey of the registrant's equipment and quality assurance program, the supervising medical physicist is present to observe, and correct, as needed, the individual who is conducting the survey.

(23)

Established operating level - The value of a particular quality assurance parameter that has been established as an acceptable normal level by the registrant's quality assurance program.

(24)

Facility - A hospital, outpatient department, clinic, radiology practice, mobile unit, an office of a physician, or other person that conducts breast cancer screening or diagnosis through mammography activities, including any or all of the following:

(A)

the operation of equipment to produce a mammogram;

(B)

processing of film;

(C)

initial interpretation of the mammogram; or

(D)

maintaining the viewing conditions for that interpretation.

(25)

Final assessment categories - The overall final assessment of findings in a report of a mammography examination, classified in one of the following categories:

(A)

"negative" indicates nothing to comment upon (if the interpreting physician is aware of clinical findings or symptoms, despite the negative assessment, these shall be explained);

(B)

"benign" is also a negative assessment;

(C)

"probably benign" indicates a finding(s) that has a high probability of being benign;

(D)

"suspicious" indicates a finding(s) without all the characteristic morphology of breast cancer but indicating a definite probability of being malignant;

(E)

"highly suggestive of malignancy" indicates a finding(s) that has a high probability of being malignant; or

(F)

"incomplete" indicates there is a need for additional imaging evaluation. Reasons why no assessment can be made shall be stated by the interpreting physician.

(26)

First allowable time - The earliest time a resident physician is eligible to take the diagnostic radiology boards from an FDA-designated certifying body.

(27)

Formal training - Attendance and participation in direct instruction activities. This does not include self-study programs.

(28)

Half-value layer (HVL) - The thickness of a specified material that attenuates the beam of radiation to an extent such that the exposure rate is reduced to one-half of its original value. In this definition, the contribution of all scattered radiation, other than any that might be present initially in the beam concerned, is deemed to be excluded.

(29)

Image receptor - Any device, such as a fluorescent screen or radiographic film, that transforms incident x-ray photons either into a visible image or into another form that can be made into a visible image by further transformations.

(30)

Image review board - a group of qualified review physicians and other individuals approved by FDA who review the clinical and phantom images.

(31)

Institutional review board (IRB) - Any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution to review, approve the initiation of, and conduct periodic review of biomedical research involving human subjects.

(32)

Interpreting physician - A licensed physician who interprets mammographic images and who meets the requirements of subsection (f)(1) of this section.

(33)

Kerma - The sum of the initial energies of all the charged particles liberated by uncharged ionizing particles in a material of given mass.

(34)

Laterality - The designation of either the right or left breast.

(35)

Lead interpreting physician - The interpreting physician assigned the general responsibility for ensuring that a facility's quality assurance program meets all of the requirements of subsections (k), (l), and (m) of this section.

(36)

Mammogram - A radiographic image produced through mammography.

(37)

Mammography - The use of x-radiation to produce an image of the breast that may be used to detect the presence of pathological conditions of the breast. For the purposes of this section, mammography does not include radiography of the breast performed as follows:

(A)

during invasive interventions for localization or biopsy procedures except as specified in subsection (q) of this section; or

(B)

with an investigational mammography device as part of a scientific study conducted in accordance with FDA's investigational device exemption regulations.

(38)

Mammographic modality - A technology for radiography of the breast. Examples are screen-film mammography and xeromammography.

(39)

Mammography medical outcomes audit - A systematic collection of mammography results compared with outcomes data.

(40)

Mammography system - A system that includes the following:

(A)

an x-ray unit used as a source of radiation in producing images of breast tissue;

(B)

an imaging system used for the formation of a latent image of breast tissue;

(C)

an imaging processing device for changing a latent image of breast tissue to a visual image that can be used for diagnostic purposes;

(D)

a viewing device used for the visual evaluation of an image of breast tissue if the image is produced in interpreting visual data captured on an image receptor;

(E)

a medical radiological technologist who performs a mammography; and

(F)

a physician who engages in, and who meets the requirements of this section relating to the reading, evaluation, and interpretation of mammograms.

(41)

Mammography unit(s) - Components assembled for the production of x-rays for use during mammography. These include, at a minimum, the following:

(A)

an x-ray generator;

(B)

an x-ray control;

(C)

a tube housing assembly;

(D)

a beam limiting device; and

(E)

supporting structures.

(42)

Mean optical density - The average of the optical densities measured using phantom thicknesses of 2, 4, and 6 centimeters (cm) with values of kilovolt peak (kVp) clinically appropriate for those thicknesses.

(43)

Medical physicist - An individual who performs surveys and evaluations of mammographic equipment in accordance with this section and who meets the qualifications in subsection (f)(3) of this section.

(44)

Medical radiological technologist (operator of equipment) - An individual specifically trained in the use of radiographic equipment and the positioning of patients for radiographic examinations who performs mammography examinations in accordance with this section and who meets the qualifications in subsection (f)(2) of this section.

(45)

Mobile services - The use of mammography units in temporary locations for limited time periods. The units may be fixed inside a mobile van or transported to temporary locations.

(46)

Multi-reading - Two or more physicians interpreting the same mammogram. At least one physician shall be qualified as an interpreting physician.

(47)

Optical density (OD) - A measure of the fraction of incident light transmitted through a developed film and defined by the equation.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.230(c)(47)

(48)

Patient - Any individual who undergoes a mammography examination in a facility, regardless of whether the person is referred by a physician or is self-referred.

(49)

Phantom - A test object used to simulate radiographic characteristics of compressed breast tissue and containing components that radiographically model aspects of breast disease and cancer. The phantom shall be accepted by FDA.

(50)

Phantom image - A radiographic image of a phantom.

(51)

Physical science - This includes physics, chemistry, radiation science (including medical physics and health physics), and engineering.

(52)

Positive mammogram - A mammogram that has an overall assessment of findings that are either "suspicious" or "highly suggestive of malignancy."

(53)

Qualified instructor - An individual whose training and experience prepares him or her to carry out specified training assignments. Interpreting physicians, medical radiologic technologists, or medical physicists who meet the requirements of subsection (f) of this section would be considered qualified instructors in their respective areas of mammography. Other examples of individuals who may be qualified instructors for the purpose of providing training to meet the regulations of this section include, but are not limited to, instructors in a post-high school training institution and manufacturer's representatives.

(54)

Quality control technologist - An individual meeting the requirements of subsection (f)(2) of this section who is responsible for those quality assurance responsibilities not assigned to the lead interpreting physician or to the medical physicist.

(55)

Self-referral mammography - The use of x-radiation to test asymptomatic women for the detection of diseases of the breasts when such tests are not specifically and individually ordered by a licensed physician.

(56)

Serious adverse event - An adverse event that may significantly compromise clinical outcomes, or an adverse event for which a facility fails to take appropriate corrective action in a timely manner.

(57)

Serious complaint - A report of a serious adverse event.

(58)

Source-to-image receptor distance (SID) - The distance from the source to the center of the input surface of the image receptor.

(59)

Standard breast - A 4.2 cm thick compressed breast consisting of 50% glandular and 50% adipose tissue.

(60)

Survey - An on-site physics consultation and evaluation of a facility quality assurance program performed by a medical physicist.

(61)

Technique chart - A chart that provides all necessary generator control settings and geometry needed to make clinical radiographs.

(62)

Technical aspects of mammography - In relation to continuing education, some or all of the following subjects must be included:

(A)

anatomy and physiology of the female breast;

(B)

mammographic positioning;

(C)

technical factors used in mammography;

(D)

mammographic film evaluation and critique;

(E)

breast pathology; or

(F)

mammographic quality assurance procedures.

(63)

Time cycle - The film development time in processing.

(64)

Traceable to a national standard - Calibrated at either the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) or at a calibration laboratory that participates in a proficiency program with NIST at least once every two years. The results of the proficiency test conducted within 24 months of calibration shall show agreement within plus or minus 3.0% of the national standard in the mammography energy range.

(d)

Prohibitions.

(1)

Radiographic equipment designed for general purpose or special nonmammography procedures shall not be used for mammography. This includes systems that have been modified or equipped with special attachments for mammography.

(2)

The agency may prohibit use of machines that pose significant threat or endanger public health and safety, in accordance with §289.201 of this title and §289.205 of this title.

(3)

Individuals shall not be exposed to the useful beam except for healing arts purposes and unless such exposure has been authorized by a licensed physician. This provision specifically prohibits deliberate exposure for the following purposes:

(A)

exposure of an individual for training, demonstration, or other non-healing arts purposes;

(B)

exposure of an individual for the purpose of healing arts screening (self referral mammography) except as authorized by subsection (h) of this section; and

(C)

exposure of an individual for the purpose of research except as authorized by subsection (p) of this section.

(e)

Exemptions.

(1)

Mammography machines or cabinet x-ray units used exclusively for examination of breast biopsy specimens are exempt from the requirements of this section. These units are required to meet applicable provisions of §289.226 of this title and §289.227 of this title (relating to Use of Radiation Machines in the Healing Arts and Veterinary Medicine).

(2)

Xerography systems not used for detection of diseases of the breast are exempt from the requirements of this section. These units are required to meet applicable provisions of §289.226 of this title and §289.227 of this title.

(3)

Mammography systems used exclusively for invasive interventions for localization or biopsy procedures are exempt from the requirements of this section except for those listed in subsection (q) of this section.

(4)

Mammography systems used exclusively for research or investigation are exempt from the requirements of this section.

(5)

All mammography registrants are exempt from the radiation protection program requirements of §289.202(e) of this title.

(6)

All mammography registrants are exempt from the posting of radiation area requirements of §289.202(aa)(1) of this title provided that the operator has continuous surveillance and access control of the radiation area.

(f)

Personnel qualifications. The following requirements apply to all personnel involved in any aspect of mammography including the production and interpretation of mammograms.

(1)

Interpreting physician. Each physician interpreting mammograms shall hold a current Texas license issued by the Texas State Board of Medical Examiners and meet the following qualifications.

(A)

Initial qualifications. Before interpreting mammograms independently, the physician shall:

(i)

be certified by the American Board of Radiology, the American Osteopathic Board of Radiology, or one of the other bodies approved by the FDA to certify interpreting physicians or have at least three months of documented formal training in the interpretation of mammograms and in topics related to mammography in accordance with subsection (nn)(2) of this section;

(ii)

have had 60 hours of documented category I CMEUs in mammography. At least 15 of the 60 hours shall have been acquired within three years immediately prior to the date that the physician qualified as an interpreting physician. Hours spent in residency specifically devoted to mammography will be equivalent to category I CMEUs and accepted if documented in writing by the appropriate representative of the training institution. The residency program must be approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the Council on Postdoctoral Training of the American Osteopathic Association; and

(iii)

have interpreted or multi-read, under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician, at least 240 mammographic examinations within the six month period immediately prior to the date that the physician qualifies as an interpreting physician.

(B)

Exemptions.

(i)

Physicians who qualified as interpreting physicians in accordance with the requirements of §289.230 that were in effect prior to April 28, 1999, or any other equivalent state or federal requirements in effect prior to April 28, 1999, are considered to have met the initial requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(ii)

Physicians who have interpreted or multi-read at least 240 mammographic examinations under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician in any six month period during the last two years of a diagnostic radiology residency and who became board certified at the first allowable time, are exempt from subparagraph (A)(iii) of this paragraph.

(C)

Continuing education and experience. The time period for completing continuing education is a 36 month period and the time period for completing continuing experience is a 24 month period. These periods begin when a physician completes the requirements to become an interpreting physician in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. The facility shall choose one of the dates in clause (i) of this subparagraph to determine the 36 month continuing education period and one of the dates in clause (ii) of this subparagraph to determine the 24 month continuing experience period. Each interpreting physician shall maintain qualifications by meeting the following requirements:

(i)

participating in education programs by completing at least 15 category I CMEUs in mammography that shall include at least six CMEUs in each modality used by the interpreting physician in his/her practice or by teaching mammography courses. CMEUs earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once during the 36 month period. The continuing education must be completed in the 36 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the date of the registrant's annual inspection; or

(II)

the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection; or

(III)

any date in between the two;

(ii)

interpreting or multi-reading at least 960 mammographic examinations that must be completed during the 24 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the date of the registrant's annual inspection; or

(II)

the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection; or

(III)

any date in between the two; and

(iii)

accumulating at least eight hours of CMEUs in any mammography modality in which the interpreting physician has not been previously trained, prior to independently using the new modality.

(D)

Reestablishing qualifications. Interpreting physicians who fail to maintain the required continuing education or experience requirements shall reestablish their qualifications before resuming independent interpretation of mammograms as follows:

(i)

obtain a sufficient number of additional category I CMEUs to bring their total up to the credits required in the previous 36 months;

(ii)

interpret or multi-read the following, within the six months immediately prior to resuming independent interpretation and under the direct supervision of an interpreting physician:

(I)

at least 240 mammographic examinations; or

(II)

a sufficient number of mammographic examinations to bring the total up to 960 examinations for the prior 24 months, whichever is less; or

(iii)

complete both clauses (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, if an interpreting physician fails to maintain both the continuing education and experience requirements.

(2)

Medical radiologic technologists (operators of equipment). Each person performing mammographic examinations shall have current certification as a medical radiologic technologist under Texas Civil Statutes, Article 4512m and shall meet the following qualifications.

(A)

Initial requirements. Before performing mammographic examinations, the operator of equipment shall have:

(i)

completed a minimum of 40 contact hours of training as outlined in subsection (nn)(1) of this section by a qualified instructor; and

(ii)

performed a minimum of 25 mammographic examinations under the direct supervision of an individual qualified in accordance with the qualifications of this paragraph. The 25 mammographic examinations may be obtained concurrently with the 40 contact hours of training specified in clause (i) of this subparagraph but shall not exceed 16 hours of the 40 contact hours.

(B)

Exemptions. Equipment operators who qualified as medical radiologic technologists to perform mammography in accordance with the requirements of §289.230 that were in effect prior to April 28, 1999, or any other equivalent state or federal requirements in effect prior to April 28, 1999, are considered to have met the initial requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

(C)

Continuing education and experience. The time period for completing continuing education is a 36 month period and the time period for completing continuing experience is a 24 month period. The period for continuing education begins when a technologist completes the requirements in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. The period for continuing experience begins when a technologist completes the requirements in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, or April 28,1999, whichever is later. The facility shall choose one of the dates in clause (i) of this subparagraph to determine the 36 month continuing education period and one of the dates in clause (ii) of this subparagraph to determine the 24 month continuing experience period. Each medical radiologic technologist shall maintain qualifications by meeting the following requirements:

(i)

participating in education programs by completing at least 15 CEUs in mammography that shall include at least six CEUs in each modality used by the technologist or by teaching mammography courses. CEUs earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once during the 36 month period. The continuing education must be completed in the 36 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the date of the registrant's annual inspection; or

(II)

the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection; or

(III)

any date in between the two;

(ii)

performing a minimum of 200 mammographic examinations that must be completed during the 24 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the facility's annual inspection; or

(II)

the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection;

(III)

or any date in between the two; and

(iii)

accumulating at least eight hours of CEUs in any mammography modality in which the medical radiologic technologist has not been previously trained, prior to independently using the new modality.

(D)

Requalification. Medical radiologic technologists who fail to maintain the continuing education or experience requirements shall reestablish their qualifications before resuming independent performance of mammograms as follows:

(i)

obtaining a sufficient number of additional CEUs to bring their total up to the credits required in the previous 36 months;

(ii)

performing a minimum of 25 mammographic examinations under the direct supervision of a qualified medical radiologic technologist; or

(iii)

completing both clauses (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, if a medical radiologic technologist fails to maintain both the continuing education and experience requirements.

(3)

Medical physicist. Each medical physicist performing mammographic surveys and evaluating mammographic equipment shall hold a current Texas license under the Medical Physics Practice Act, Article 4512n, in diagnostic radiological physics and be registered with the agency or employed by a business registered with the agency, in accordance with §289.226(e) of this title and the Texas Radiation Control Act, unless exempted by §289.226(b)(6) of this title. Each medical physicist shall meet the following qualifications:

(A)

Initial qualifications. Before performing surveys and evaluating mammographic equipment independently, the medical physicist shall:

(i)

have a masters degree or higher in a physical science from an accredited institution, with no less than 20 semester hours or equivalent (30 quarter hours) of college undergraduate or graduate level physics. (Certification in an appropriate specialty area by one of the bodies determined by FDA to have procedures and requirements to ensure that medical physicists certified by the body are competent to perform physics surveys is considered an equivalent requirement);

(ii)

have 20 contact hours of documented specialized training in conducting surveys of mammography facilities; and

(iii)

have experience conducting surveys of at least one mammography facility and a total of at least ten mammography units. After April 28, 1999, experience conducting surveys must be acquired under the direct supervision of a medical physicist who meets the requirements of subparagraphs (A) and (C) of this paragraph. No more than one survey of a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement; or

(B)

Alternative initial qualifications. Individuals who qualified as a medical physicist in accordance with the requirements of §289.230 that were in effect prior to April 28, 1999, or any other equivalent state or federal requirements in effect prior to April 28, 1999, and have met the following additional qualifications prior to April 28, 1999, are determined to have met the initial qualifications of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph:

(i)

a bachelor's degree or higher in a physical science from an accredited institution with no less than ten semester hours or equivalent of college undergraduate or graduate level physics;

(ii)

40 contact hours of documented specialized training in conducting surveys of mammography facilities; and

(iii)

experience conducting surveys of at least one mammography facility and a total of at least 20 mammography units. No more than one survey of a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement. The training and experience requirements must be met after fulfilling the degree requirements.

(C)

Continuing education and experience. The time period for completing continuing education is a 36 month period and the time period for completing continuing experience is a 24 month period. The period for continuing education will begin when a physicist completes the requirements in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. The time period for continuing experience will begin when a physicist completes the requirements in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, or April 28, 1999, whichever is later. The facility shall choose one of the dates in clause (i) of this subparagraph to determine the 36 month continuing education period and one of the dates in clause (ii) of this subparagraph to determine the 24 month continuing experience period. Each medical physicist shall maintain their qualifications by meeting the following requirements:

(i)

participating in education programs, either by teaching or completing at least 15 CEUs in mammography that shall include hours of training appropriate to each mammographic modality evaluated by the medical physicist during his or her surveys. CEUs earned through teaching a specific course can be counted only once during the 36 month period. The continuing education must be completed in the 36 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the date of the registrant's annual inspection; or,

(II)

by the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection; or

(III)

any date in between the two;

(ii)

performing surveys of two mammography facilities and a total of at least six mammography units. (no more than one survey of a specific facility within a ten month period on a specific unit within a period of 60 days can be counted towards the total mammography unit survey requirement) The continuing experience must be completed during the 24 months immediately preceding:

(I)

the date of the facility's annual inspection; or

(II)

by the last day of the calendar quarter preceding the inspection; or

(III)

any date in between the two; and

(iii)

accumulating at least eight hours of CEUs in any mammography modality in which the medical physicist has not been previously trained, prior to independently using the new modality.

(D)

Reestablishing qualifications. Medical physicists who fail to maintain the continuing education or experience requirements shall reestablish their qualifications before resuming independent performance of surveys and equipment evaluations applicable as follows:

(i)

obtaining a sufficient number of additional CEUs to bring their total up to the credits required in the previous 36 months;

(ii)

performing a sufficient number of surveys under the direct supervision of a qualified medical physicist to bring their total up to the credits required in the previous 24 months; or

(iii)

completing both clauses (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph, if a medical physicist fails to maintain both the continuing education and experience requirements.

(4)

Retention of personnel records. Records documenting the qualifications, continuing education, and experience of personnel in subsection (f)(1)-(3) shall be maintained for inspection by the agency in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section.

(g)

Equipment standards. Only x-ray systems meeting the following standards shall be used.

(1)

System design. The equipment shall have been specifically designed and manufactured for mammography and in accordance with 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1010.2, 1020.30, and 1020.31.

(2)

Motion of tube-image receptor assembly. The assembly shall be capable of being fixed in any position where it is designed to operate. Once fixed in any such position, it shall not undergo unintended motion. In the event of power interruption, this mechanism shall not fail.

(3)

Image receptor sizes. Systems using screen-film image receptors shall, at a minimum, provide for the following:

(A)

operation with image receptors of 18 x 24 cm and 24 x 30 cm;

(B)

moving grids matched to all image receptor sizes provided;

(C)

operation with the grid removed for systems used for magnification procedures; and

(D)

image receptors to rest, post-loading, 15 minutes between exposures.

(4)

Beam limitation. All systems shall have beam-limiting devices that allow the useful beam to extend to or beyond the chest wall edge of the image receptor.

(5)

Magnification. Systems used to perform noninterventional problem solving procedures shall have radiographic magnification capability available for use with, at a minimum, at least one magnification value within the range of 1.4 to 2.0.

(6)

Focal spot and target material selection. Selection of the focal spot or target material shall be as follows.

(A)

When more than one focal spot is provided, the system shall indicate, prior to exposure, which focal spot is selected.

(B)

When more than one target material is provided, the system shall indicate, prior to exposure, the preselected target material.

(C)

When the target material and/or focal spot is selected by a system algorithm that is based on the exposure or on a test exposure, the system shall display, after the exposure, the target material and/or focal spot actually used during the exposure.

(7)

Compression. All mammography systems shall incorporate a compression device.

(A)

Systems shall be equipped with different sized compression paddles that match the sizes of all full-field image receptors provided for the system.

(B)

Compression paddles for special purposes, including those smaller than the full size of the image receptor (spot compression) may be provided. Such paddles are not subject to the requirements of subparagraphs (E) and (F) of this paragraph.

(C)

Except as provided in subparagraph (D) of this paragraph, the compression paddle shall be flat and parallel to the breast support table and shall not deflect from parallel by more than 1.0 cm at any point on the surface of the compression paddle when compression is applied.

(D)

Equipment intended by the manufacturer's design to not be flat and parallel to the breast support table during compression shall meet the manufacturer's design specifications and maintenance requirements.

(E)

The chest wall edge of the compression paddle shall be straight and parallel to the edge of the image receptor.

(F)

The chest wall edge may be bent upward to allow for patient comfort, but shall not appear on the image.

(8)

Technique factor selection and display. Technique factor selection and display shall be as follows.

(A)

Manual selection of milliampere seconds (mAs) or at least one of its component parts, milliampere (mA) and/or time, shall be available.

(B)

The technique factors (peak tube potential in kilovolts (kV) and either tube current in mA and exposure time in seconds or the product of tube current and exposure time in mAs) to be used during an exposure shall be indicated before the exposure begins, except when AEC is used, in which case the technique factors that are set prior to the exposure shall be indicated.

(C)

When the AEC mode is used, the system shall indicate the actual kVp and mAs used during the exposure. The mAs may be displayed as mA and time.

(9)

Automatic exposure control. Each screen-film system shall provide an AEC mode that is operable in all combinations of equipment configuration provided, for example, grid, nongrid, magnification, non magnification, and various target filter combinations.

(A)

The positioning or selection of the detector shall permit flexibility in the placement of the detector under the target tissue.

(i)

The size and available positions of the detector shall be clearly indicated at the x-ray input surface of the breast compression paddle.

(ii)

The selected position of the detector shall be clearly indicated.

(B)

The system shall provide means to vary the selected optical density from the normal (zero) setting.

(10)

X-ray film. The registrant shall use x-ray film for mammography that has been designated by the film manufacturer as appropriate for mammography.

(11)

Intensifying screens. The registrant shall use intensifying screens for mammography that have been designated by the screen manufacturer as appropriate for mammography and shall use film that is matched to the screen's spectral output as specified by the manufacturer.

(12)

Film processing solutions. For processing mammography films, the registrant shall use chemical solutions that are capable of developing the films used by the facility in a manner equivalent to the minimum requirements specified by the film manufacturer.

(13)

Lighting. The registrant shall make available special lights for film illumination (hot lights) capable of producing light levels greater than that provided by the view box.

(14)

Film masking devices. Registrants shall ensure that film masking devices that can limit the illuminated area to a region equal to or smaller than the exposed portion of the film are available to all interpreting physicians interpreting for the facility.

(15)

Equipment variances. Registrants with mammography equipment that has been issued variances by FDA to 21 CFR 1020.2, 1020.30, 1020.31 or meets the requirements for the alternatives to the quality standards for equipment in 21 CFR 900.18(b), shall maintain copies of those variances or alternative standards.

(h)

Self-referral mammography. Any person proposing to conduct a self-referral mammography program shall not initiate such a program without prior approval of the agency. When requesting such approval, that person shall submit the following information:

(1)

the number and type of views (or projections);

(2)

the age of the population to be examined and the frequency of the exam following established, nationally recognized criteria, such as those of the American Cancer Society, American College of Radiology (ACR), or the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements;

(3)

written procedures to include methods of:

(A)

advising patients and private physicians of the results of the mammography examination in accordance with subsection (i)(2) of this section;

(B)

follow-up with patients and physicians in accordance with subsection (i)(3) of this section; and

(C)

recommending to patients who do not have a physician means of selecting a physician;

(4)

methods for educating mammography patients in breast self-examination techniques and on the necessity for follow-up by a physician.

(i)

Medical records and mammography reports.

(1)

Contents and terminology. Each registrant shall prepare a written report of the results of each mammography examination that shall include the following information:

(A)

name of the patient and an additional patient identifier;

(B)

date of the examination;

(C)

name and signature of the interpreting physician who interpreted the mammogram (electronic signatures are acceptable);

(D)

overall final assessment of findings using the final assessment categories as defined in subsection (c) of this section; and

(E)

recommendations made to the practitioner about what additional actions, if any, should be taken. All clinical questions raised by the referring physician shall be addressed in the report to the extent possible, even if the assessment is negative or benign.

(2)

Communication of mammography results to the patient and physicians. Each registrant shall send reports as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days from the date of the mammography examination to:

(A)

patients advising them of the results of the mammography examination and any further medical needs indicated. The report shall include a summary written in language easily understood by a lay person; and

(B)

referring physicians, or in the case of self-referral, to the physician indicated by the patient, advising them of the results of the mammography examination, containing the information specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection, and any further medical needs indicated.

(3)

Follow-up with patients and physicians. Each registrant shall follow-up to confirm the following:

(A)

that patients with positive findings and patients needing repeat exams have received proper notification; and

(B)

that physicians have received proper notification of patients with positive findings needing repeat exams.

(4)

Retention of clinical images. Each registrant that performs mammograms shall do the following.

(A)

Maintain mammography films and reports in a permanent medical record for a minimum of five years and if no additional mammograms of the patient are performed at the facility, they shall be maintained for a minimum of ten years.

(B)

Upon request or on behalf of the patient, permanently or temporarily transfer the original mammograms and copies of the patient's reports to a medical institution, a physician, or to the patient directly.

(C)

If the medical records are permanently forwarded, the receiving institution or physician shall maintain and become responsible for the original film until the fifth or tenth anniversary, as specified in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph unless permanently transferred or forwarded in accordance with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph.

(5)

Mammographic image identification. Each mammographic image shall have the following information indicated on it in a permanent, legible manner and placed so as not to obscure anatomic structures:

(A)

name of patient and an additional patient identifier;

(B)

date of examination;

(C)

view and laterality (this information shall be placed on the image in a position near the axilla);

(D)

facility name and location (at a minimum the location shall include city, state, and zip code);

(E)

technologist identification;

(F)

cassette/screen identification; and

(G)

mammography unit identification if there is more than one unit in the facility.

(6)

Information shall also be maintained for each clinical image by utilizing a label on each film, recording on the film jacket, or maintaining a log or other means. The information shall include, but is not limited to, compressed breast thickness or degree of compression, and kVp.

(j)

Processing of mammographic images. Each registrant shall utilize the same processor for clinical and phantom images. Clinical images shall be processed within an interval not to exceed 24 hours from the time the first clinical image is taken. Facilities utilizing batch processing shall:

(1)

use a container to transport clinical images that will protect the film from exposure to light and radiation; and

(2)

maintain a log to include each patient name and unique identification number, date, and time of the first exam of each batch, and date and time of batch development.

(k)

Quality assurance - general. Each registrant shall establish and maintain a written quality assurance program to ensure the safety, reliability, clarity, and accuracy of mammography services performed at the mammography facility, including corrective actions to be taken if images are of poor quality.

(1)

Responsible individuals. Responsibility for the quality assurance program and for each of its elements shall be assigned to individuals who are qualified for their assignments and who shall be allowed adequate time to perform these duties.

(A)

Lead interpreting physician. The registrant shall identify a lead interpreting physician who shall have the general responsibility of:

(i)

ensuring that the quality assurance program meets all requirements of this subsection and subsections (l) and (m) of this section;

(ii)

reviewing and documenting the technologists' quality control test results at least every three months or more frequently if consistency has not yet been achieved;

(iii)

reviewing the physicists' results annually or more frequently when needed; and

(iv)

assigning and determining the individual's qualifications to perform the quality assurance tasks in subparagraphs (B)-(D) of this paragraph.

(B)

Interpreting physicians. All interpreting physicians interpreting mammograms for the registrant shall:

(i)

follow the registrant's procedures for corrective action when the images they are asked to interpret are of poor quality. These procedures shall be included in the facility's operating and safety procedures; and

(ii)

participate in the medical outcomes audit program.

(C)

Medical physicist. Each registrant shall use the services of a licensed medical physicist to survey mammography equipment and oversee the equipment-related quality assurance practices of the facility. At a minimum, the medical physicist shall be responsible for:

(i)

performing surveys of the items listed in subsection (l)(5) and (7) of this section and performing an image quality evaluation test in accordance with subsection (l)(2) of this section;

(ii)

performing mammography equipment evaluations in accordance with subsection (l)(11) of this section;

(iii)

reviewing the facility's quality assurance program; and

(iv)

providing the registrant with the reports described in subsection (l)(10) of this section.

(D)

Quality control technologist. The quality control technologist, designated by the lead interpreting physician, shall ensure performance of the items designated in subsection (l)(1)-(4), (7), (9), (12), and (14) of this section. If other personnel are assigned the quality assurance tasks in accordance with subparagraph (A)(iv) of this paragraph, the quality assurance technologist shall insure that the requirements of subsection (l)(1)-(4), (7), (9), (12), and (14) of this section are met.

(2)

Quality assurance records. The lead interpreting physician, quality control technologist, and medical physicist shall ensure that records concerning mammography technique and procedures, quality control (include monitoring data, corrective actions, and the effectiveness of the corrective actions), safety, protection, and employee qualifications to meet assigned quality assurance tasks are properly maintained and updated. These quality control records shall be kept for subsections (k) and (m) of this section and for each test specified in subsection (l) of this section, in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section.

(l)

Quality assurance - equipment. Registrants with screen-film systems shall perform the following quality control tests at the intervals specified. In addition to the intervals specified in (l)(4)(B) and (5)(H), the tests shall be performed prior to initial use.

(1)

Daily quality control tests. Film processors used to develop mammograms shall be adjusted and maintained to meet the technical development specifications for the mammography film in use. A processor performance test shall be completed on each day that mammography is performed before any clinical films are processed that day.

(A)

Processor performance test. Using mammography film used clinically at the facility, sensitometer tests shall include assessment of the following:

(i)

base plus fog density that shall be within plus 0.03 of the established operating level;

(ii)

mid-density that shall be within plus or minus 0.15 of the established operating level; and

(iii)

density difference that shall be within plus or minus 0.15 of the established operating level.

(B)

Backup processor. A processor, other than the one commonly in use for mammography, may be used temporarily provided that the backup processor has been tested and meets the requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph. Prior to the first patient exposure, a phantom image shall be acquired and run in the backup processor and shall meet the requirements of paragraph (2) of this section.

(C)

Film processors being used for mammography at multiple locations, such as a mobile service, shall be subject to the requirements of this paragraph.

(D)

Film processors utilized for mammography shall be adjusted to and operated at the specifications recommended by the mammographic film manufacturer, or at other settings such that the sensitometric performance is at least equivalent.

(2)

Weekly quality control tests. An image quality evaluation test, using an FDA-accepted phantom, shall meet the following parameters.

(A)

The optical density of the film at the center of an image of a standard FDA-accepted phantom shall be at least 1.20 when exposed under a typical clinical condition and shall not change by more than plus or minus 0.20 from the established operating level.

(B)

The density difference between the background of the phantom and an added test object, used to assess image contrast, shall be measured and shall not vary by more than plus or minus 0.05 from the established operating level.

(C)

The phantom image shall be made on the standard mammographic film in use at the facility with techniques used for clinical images of a standard breast. The phantom image shall meet the requirements in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph and clause (i) of this subparagraph. No mammograms shall be taken on patients if any of these minimums are not met.

(i)

The mammographic unit shall be capable of producing images of the mammographic phantom in accordance with the phantom image scoring protocol in subsection (nn)(5) of this section.

(ii)

Each phantom image and a record of the evaluation of that image shall be maintained at the location where the mammography image was produced or with the radiographic equipment for mobile services.

(3)

Quarterly quality control tests. These tests shall be performed within the calender quarter at an interval not to exceed 90 days.

(A)

Fixer retention in film. The residual fixer shall be no more than 5 micrograms per square cm.

(B)

Repeat analysis. A repeat analysis on clinical images repeated or rejected shall be performed, analyzed, and documented. The total repeat or reject rate shall not exceed 5.0%. If the total repeat or reject rate changes from the previously determined rate by more than 2.0% of the total films included in the analysis, the reason(s) for the change shall be determined. Corrective action shall be taken and documented if the total repeat or reject rate for the facility exceeds 5.0% or changes from the previously determined rate by more than 2.0% of the total films included in the analysis. Test films, cleared films, or film processed as a result of exposure of a film bin are not to be included in the count for repeat analysis. Films included in the repeat analysis are not required to be kept after completion of the analysis.

(4)

Semiannual quality control tests. These tests shall be performed within the calender quarter at an interval not to exceed six months.

(A)

Darkroom fog. The optical density attributable to darkroom fog shall not exceed 0.05 when a mammography film of the type used in the facility, which has a mid- density of no less than 1.2 OD, is exposed to typical darkroom conditions for two minutes while such film is placed on the counter top, emulsion side up. If the darkroom has a safelight used for mammography film, it shall be on during this test.

(B)

Screen-film contact. Testing for screen-film contact shall be conducted using 40 mesh copper screen. The entire area of the cassette that may be clinically exposed shall be tested. This shall include all cassettes used for mammography in the facility.

(C)

Compression device performance. The x-ray system shall be capable of compressing the breast with a force of at least 25 pounds and shall be capable of maintaining this compression for at least 15 seconds. For systems with automatic compression, the maximum force applied without manual assistance shall not exceed 40 pounds.

(5)

Annual quality control tests. These tests shall be performed within the calender quarter at an interval not to exceed 12 months.

(A)

Automatic exposure control performance. The AEC shall be as follows.

(i)

The AEC shall be capable of maintaining film optical density within plus or minus 0.30 of the mean optical density when thickness of a homogeneous material is varied over a range of 2 to 6 cm and the kVp is varied appropriately for such thicknesses over the kVp range used clinically in the facility. If this requirement cannot be met, a technique chart shall be developed showing appropriate techniques (kVp and density control settings) for different breast thicknesses and compositions that must be used so that optical densities within plus or minus 0.30 of the average under phototimed conditions can be produced.

(ii)

The optical density of the film in the center of the phantom image shall not be less than 1.20.

(B)

Kilovoltage peak accuracy and reproducibility. At the most commonly used clinical settings of kVp, the coefficient of variation of reproducibility of the kVp shall be equal to or less than 0.02. The kVp shall be accurate to within plus or minus 5.0% of the indicated or selected kVp at the following:

(i)

the lowest clinical kVp that can be measured by a kVp test device;

(ii)

the most commonly used clinical kVp; and

(iii)

the highest available clinical kVp.

(C)

Focal spot condition. Focal spot condition shall be evaluated either by determining system resolution or by measuring focal spot dimensions.

(i)

System resolution.

(I)

Each x-ray system used for mammography, in combination with the mammography screen-film combination used in the facility, shall provide a minimum resolution of 11 cycles/millimeter (mm) (line-pairs/mm) when a high contrast resolution bar test pattern is oriented with the bars perpendicular to the anode-cathode axis, and a minimum resolution of 13 line-pairs/mm when the bars are parallel to that axis.

(II)

The bar pattern shall be placed 4.5 cm above the breast support surface, centered with respect to the chest wall edge of the image receptor, and with the edge of the pattern within 1 cm of the chest wall edge of the image receptor.

(III)

When more than one target material is provided, the measurement in subclause (I) of this clause shall be made using the appropriate focal spot for each target material.

(IV)

When more than one SID is provided, the test shall be performed at the SID most commonly used clinically.

(V)

Test kVp shall be set at the value used clinically by the facility for a standard breast and shall be performed in the AEC mode, if available. If necessary, a suitable absorber may be placed in the beam to increase exposure times. The screen-film cassette combination used by the facility shall be used to test for this requirement and shall be placed in the normal location used for clinical procedures.

(ii)

Focal spot dimensions. Measured values of the focal spot length (dimension parallel to the anode cathode axis) and width (dimension perpendicular to the anode cathode axis) shall be within the tolerance limits specified as follows.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.230(l)(5)(C)(ii)

(D)

Beam quality and half-value layer (HVL). The HVL shall meet the specifications of 21 CFR 1020.30(m)(l) for the minimum HVL. These values, extrapolated to the mammographic range, are shown as follows. Values not shown in Table II may be determined by linear interpolation or extrapolation.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.230(l)(5)(D)

(E)

Breast entrance air kerma and AEC reproducibility. The coefficient of variation for both air kerma and mAs shall not exceed 0.05.

(F)

Dosimetry. The average glandular dose delivered during a single craniocaudal view of an FDA accepted phantom simulating a standard breast shall not exceed 3.0 milligray (mGy) (0.3 rad) per exposure.

(G)

X-ray field/light field/image receptor/compression paddle alignment. All systems shall meet the following:

(i)

All systems shall have beam-limiting devices that allow the entire chest wall edge of the x-ray field to extend to the chest wall edge of the image receptor and provide means to assure that the x-ray field does not extend beyond any edge of the image receptor by more than 2.0% of the SID.

(ii)

If a light field that passes through the x-ray beam limitation device is provided, it shall be aligned with the x-ray field so that the total of any misalignment of the edges of the light field and the x-ray field along either the length or the width of the visually defined field at the plane of the breast support surface shall not exceed 2.0% of the SID.

(iii)

The chest wall edge of the compression paddle shall not extend beyond the chest wall edge of the image receptor by more than 1.0% of the SID when tested with the compression paddle placed above the breast support surface at a distance equivalent to standard breast thickness. The shadow of the vertical edge of the compression paddle shall not be visible on the image.

(H)

Uniformity of screen speed. Uniformity of screen speed of all the cassettes in the facility shall be tested and the difference between the maximum and minimum optical densities shall not exceed 0.30. Screen artifacts shall also be evaluated during this test.

(I)

System artifacts. System artifacts shall be evaluated with a high- grade, defect-free sheet of homogeneous material large enough to cover the mammography cassette and shall be performed for all cassette sizes used in the facility using a grid appropriate for the cassette size being tested. System artifacts shall also be evaluated for all available focal spot sizes and target filter combinations used clinically.

(J)

Radiation output. The system shall be capable of producing a minimum output of 4.5 mGy air kerma per second (513 milliroentgen (mR) per second) when operating at 28 kVp in the standard mammography (molybdenum/molybdenum) mode at any SID where the system is designed to operate and when measured by a detector with its center located 4.5 cm above the breast support surface with the compression paddle in place between the source and the detector. The system shall be capable of maintaining the required minimum radiation output averaged over a 3.0 second period.

(K)

Decompression. If the system is equipped with a provision for automatic decompression after completion of an exposure or interruption of power to the system, the system shall be tested to confirm that it provides the following:

(i)

an override capability to allow maintenance of compression;

(ii)

a continuous display of the override status; and

(iii)

a manual emergency compression release that can be activated in the event of power or automatic release failure.

(L)

The technique settings used for subparagraphs (D) and (F) of this paragraph and paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be those used by the facility for its clinical images of a standard breast.

(6)

Densitometer and sensitometer. The calibration of the densitometer and sensitometer must be in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.

(7)

Quality control tests - other modalities. For systems with image receptor modalities other than screen-film, the quality assurance program shall be substantially the same as the quality assurance program recommended by the image receptor manufacturer, except that the maximum allowable dose shall not exceed the maximum allowable dose for screen-film systems in paragraph (5)(F) of this subsection.

(8)

Mobile units. The registrant shall verify that mammography units used to produce mammograms at more than one location meet the requirements in paragraphs (1)-(7) of this subsection. In addition, at each examination location, before any examinations are conducted, the registrant shall verify satisfactory performance of such units by using a test method that establishes the adequacy of the image quality produced by the unit. Processor performance shall be in accordance with paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(9)

Use of test results. After completion of the tests specified in paragraphs (1)-(8) of this subsection, the registrant shall do the following.

(A)

Compare the test results to the corresponding specified action limits; or, for nonscreen-film modalities, to the manufacturer's recommended action limits; or for post- move, preexamination testing of mobile units, to the limits established in the test method used by the facility.

(B)

If the test results in the following are outside of the action limits, corrective actions shall be taken before any further examinations are performed or any films are processed using the component of the mammography system that failed the test:

(i)

paragraph (1) of this subsection describing processor quality control;

(ii)

paragraph (2) of this subsection describing phantom image quality;

(iii)

paragraph (4)(A) of this subsection describing darkroom fog;

(iv)

paragraph (4)(B) of this subsection describing screen-film contact;

(v)

paragraph (4)(C) of this subsection describing compression device performance;

(vi)

paragraph (5)(A) of this subsection describing AEC;

(vii)

paragraph (5)(C) of this subsection describing focal spot condition;

(viii)

paragraph (5)(E) of this subsection describing reproducibility;

(ix)

paragraph (5)(F) of this subsection describing dosimetry;

(x)

paragraph (7) of this subsection describing quality control tests of other modalities; and

(xi)

paragraph (8) of this subsection describing quality control tests for mobile units.

(C)

Corrective action for all other tests described in subsection (l) of this section shall be performed within 30 days of the test date.

(D)

Documentation of the tests and the corrective actions described in subparagraphs (A)-(C) of this paragraph shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section.

(10)

Surveys. At least once a year, each facility shall undergo a survey by a medical physicist or by an individual under the direct supervision of a medical physicist.

(A)

The medical physicist shall provide the following to the facility:

(i)

a written report of the results of the tests listed in paragraphs (2), (5), (7), and (8) (if applicable) of this subsection, a review of the weekly phantom image test in accordance with paragraph (2) of this subsection, and a review of the facility's quality assurance program in accordance with subsection (k)(1)(C)(iii) of this section;

(ii)

written recommendations for corrective actions according to the test results; and

(iii)

a review of the test results with the lead interpreting physician or his/her designee and the technologist(s) performing the quality control.

(B)

The survey report shall be sent to the registrant within 30 days of the date of the survey and shall be maintained by the registrant in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section. If deficiencies are noted that involve any of the items listed in paragraph (8)(B) of this subsection, a preliminary oral or written report of the deficiencies shall be given to the facility within 72 hours of the survey.

(C)

The survey report shall be dated and signed by the medical physicist performing or supervising the survey. If the survey was performed entirely or in part by another individual under the direct supervision of the medical physicist, that individual and the part of the survey that individual performed shall also be identified in the survey.

(11)

Mammography equipment evaluations. Additional evaluations of mammography units or image processors shall be conducted whenever a new unit or processor is installed, a unit or processor is disassembled and reassembled at the same or a new location, major components of a mammography unit are changed or repaired, or a processor is repaired. These evaluations shall be used to determine whether the new or changed equipment meets the requirements of applicable standards in subsections (g) and (l) of this section.

(A)

All problems shall be corrected before the new or changed equipment is put into service for examinations or film processing.

(B)

The mammography equipment evaluation and dosimetry shall be performed by a medical physicist or by an individual under the direct supervision of a medical physicist.

(12)

Facility cleanliness. The registrant shall establish and implement adequate protocols for maintaining darkroom, screen, and view box cleanliness and shall document that all cleaning procedures are performed at the frequencies specified in the protocols.

(13)

Calibration of air kerma measuring instruments. Instruments used by medical physicists in their annual survey to measure the air kerma or air kerma rate from a mammography unit shall be calibrated at least once every two years and each time the instrument is repaired. The instrument calibration must be traceable to a national standard and calibrated with an accuracy of plus or minus 6.0% (95% confidence level) in the mammography energy range.

(14)

Infection control. Facilities shall establish and comply with a system specifying procedures to be followed by the facility for cleaning and disinfecting mammography equipment after contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials. This system shall specify the methods for documenting facility compliance with the infection control procedures established and shall:

(A)

comply with all applicable federal, state, and local regulations pertaining to infection control; and

(B)

comply with the manufacturer's recommended procedures for the cleaning and disinfection of the mammography equipment used in the facility; or

(C)

if adequate manufacturer's recommendations are not available, comply with generally accepted guidance on infection control, until such recommendations become available.

(m)

Quality assurance-mammography medical outcomes audit. Each registrant shall establish and maintain a mammography medical outcomes audit program to follow-up positive, mammographic assessments and to correlate pathology results with the interpreting physician's findings.

(1)

General requirements. Each registrant shall establish a system to collect and review outcome data for all mammograms performed, including follow-up on the disposition of all positive mammograms and correlation of pathology results with the interpreting physician's mammography report. Analysis of these outcome data shall be made individually and collectively for all interpreting physicians at the facility. In addition, any cases of breast cancer among women imaged at the facility that subsequently become known to the facility shall prompt the facility to initiate follow-up on surgical and/or pathology results and review of the mammograms taken prior to the diagnosis of a malignancy.

(2)

Frequency of audit analysis. The facility's first audit analysis shall be initiated no later than 12 months after the date the facility becomes certified, or 12 months after April 28, 1999, whichever date is the latest. This audit analysis shall be complete within an additional 12 months to permit completion of diagnostic procedures and data collection. Subsequent audit analyses will be conducted at least once every 12 months. These shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section.

(3)

Reviewing interpreting physician. Each lead interpreting physician or an interpreting physician designated by the lead interpreting physician shall review the medical outcomes audit data at least once every 12 months. This individual shall analyze the results of the audit and shall be responsible for the following:

(A)

recording the dates of the audit period(s);

(B)

documenting the results;

(C)

notifying other interpreting physicians of their results and the registrant's aggregate results; and

(D)

documenting any follow up actions and the nature of the follow up.

(n)

Mammographic procedure and techniques for mammography of patients with breast implants. Each registrant shall have a procedure to inquire whether or not the patient has breast implants prior to the mammographic exam. Except where contraindicated, or unless modified by a physician's directions, patients with breast implants shall have mammographic views to maximize the visualization of breast tissue.

(o)

Clinical image quality. Clinical images produced by any certified facility must continue to comply with the standards for clinical image quality established by that facility's accreditation body.

(p)

Any research using radiation producing devices on humans must be approved by an IRB as required by 45 CFR 46 and 21 CFR 56. The IRB must include at least one licensed physician to direct any use of radiation in accordance with §289.201(a) of this title.

(q)

Requirements for mammography systems used exclusively for invasive interventions for localizations or biopsy procedures. Mammography systems used exclusively for invasive interventions for localizations or biopsy procedures are exempt from this section except for the following:

(1)

purpose and scope in accordance with subsections (a) and (b) of this section;

(2)

the applicable definitions in subsection (c) of this section;

(3)

prohibitions in accordance with subsection (d)(2) and (3) of this section;

(4)

exemptions in accordance with subsection (e)(5) and (6) of this section;

(5)

personnel requirements in accordance with subsection (f)(2) and (3) of this section;

(6)

equipment standards in accordance with subsection (g)(6), (9), and (15) of this section;

(7)

having a quality assurance program in accordance with subsection (k) of this section (lead interpreting physician and interpreting physician are not required), and the applicable portions of subsections (k)(1) and (2) of this section;

(8)

performing AEC, kVp, focal spot condition, HVL, and dosimetry tests in accordance with subsection (l)(5)(A)-(D) and (F) of this section;

(9)

the applicable portions concerning mobile services in accordance with subsection (l)(8) of this section;

(10)

the applicable portions of the quality assurance test results in accordance with subsection (l)(9) of this section;

(11)

having a medical physicist annual survey in accordance with subsection (l)(10) of this section;

(12)

maintaining applicable records in subsection (r)(1)-(3);

(13)

operating and safety procedures in accordance with subsection (s)(1) of this section;

(14)

occupational dose limits in accordance with subsection (s)(2) of this section;

(15)

technique chart in accordance with subsection (s)(3) of this section;

(16)

receipt, transfer, disposal, calibration, and maintenance records in accordance with subsection (s)(4) and (7);

(17)

viewing system in accordance with subsection (s)(5) of this section;

(18)

exposure of individuals other than the patient in accordance with subsection (s)(6) of this section;

(19)

certification requirements except for FDA accreditation in accordance with subsection (t) of this section;

(20)

issuance of certification and specific terms and conditions of certification in accordance with subsections (u) and (v) of this section;

(21)

responsibilities of a registrant in accordance with the applicable portions of subsection (w) of this section;

(22)

expiration, termination, renewal, modification and revocation, and reciprocity of certification in accordance with subsections (x)-(vv) of this section;

(23)

inspections in accordance with subsection (cc) of this section, except for subsection (cc)(1) of this section;

(24)

technologist training in accordance with subsection (nn)(1) of this section;

(25)

time requirements for record keeping in accordance with the applicable portions of subsection (nn)(3) of this section; and

(26)

operating and safety procedures in accordance with the applicable portions of subsection (nn)(4) of this section.

(r)

Records required to be kept with units authorized for mobile services.

(1)

Copies of the following shall be kept with units authorized for mobile services:

(A)

operating and safety procedures in accordance with subsection (r)(1) of this section;

(B)

medical radiologic technologists' credentials;

(C)

current quality control records for at least the last 90 calendar days for on-board processors in accordance with subsection (l)(1) of this section;

(D)

current §§289.201 of this title, 289.202 of this title, 289.203 of this title, §289.205 of this title, §289.226 of this title, and §289.230 of this title.

(E)

copy of certification of mammography system;

(F)

certification of inspection or notice of failure from last inspection, if applicable; and

(G)

copy of mammography facility accreditation.

(2)

All other records required by this section shall be maintained at a specified location for inspection by the agency. Records may be maintained electronically in accordance with §289.201(d)(3) of this title.

(3)

Records required at authorized use locations. Copies of the following shall be kept at authorized use locations. Records may be maintained electronically in accordance with §289.201(d)(3) of this title.

(A)

operating and safety procedures in accordance with subsection (s)(1) of this subsection;

(B)

quality assurance program in accordance with subsections (k), (l), and (m) of this section;

(C)

credentials for interpreting physicians operating at that location in accordance with subsection (f)(1) of this section;

(D)

credentials for medical radiologic technologists operating at that location in accordance with subsection (f)(2) of this section;

(E)

credentials for medical physicists operating at that location in accordance with subsection (f)(3) of this section;

(F)

quality control records in accordance with subsection (k)(2) of this section;

(G)

continuing education and experience records for interpreting physicians, medical radiologic technologists, and medical physicists operating at that location in accordance with subsection (f)(1)(C), (2)(C), and (3)(C) of this section;

(H)

current physicist annual survey of the mammography system;

(I)

current §§289.201 of this title, 289.202 of this title, 289.203 of this title, 289.204 of this title, 289.205 of this title, §289.226 of this title, and §289.230 of this title;

(J)

copy of certification of mammography system;

(K)

certification of inspection or notification of failure, if applicable;

(L)

records of receipts, transfers, and disposal in accordance with subsection (s)(4) of this section;

(M)

calibration, maintenance, and modification records in accordance with subsection (s)(7) of this section; and

(N)

copy of mammography facility accreditation.

(s)

Other operating procedures.

(1)

Operating and safety procedures. Each registrant shall have and implement written operating and safety procedures that shall be made available to each individual operating x-ray equipment, including any restrictions of the operating technique required for the safe operation of the particular x-ray system. These procedures shall include, but are not limited to, the items in subsection (nn)(4) of this section.

(2)

Occupational dose limits and personnel monitoring. Except as otherwise exempted, all individuals who are associated with the operation of a radiation machine are subject to the occupational dose requirements of §289.202(f), (j), (l), and (m) of this title regarding dose limits to individuals and the personnel monitoring requirements of §289.202(q) of this title.

(3)

Technique Chart. A chart or manual shall be provided or electronically displayed in the vicinity of the control panel of each machine that specifies technique factors to be utilized versus patient's anatomical size. The technique chart shall be used by all operators.

(4)

Receipt, transfer, and disposal of mammographic machines. Each registrant shall maintain records showing the receipt, transfer, and disposal of mammographic machines. These records shall include the date of receipt, transfer, or disposal, the name and signature of the individual making the record, and the manufacturer's model and serial number from the control panel of the mammographic machine. Records shall be maintained for inspection by the agency until the certification of mammography system is terminated.

(5)

Viewing system. Windows, mirrors, closed circuit television, or an equivalent system shall be provided to permit the operator to continuously observe the patient during irradiation. The operator shall be able to maintain verbal, visual, and aural contact with the patient.

(6)

Exposure of individuals other than the patient. Only the staff and ancillary personnel required for the medical procedure or training shall be in the room during the radiation exposure.

(7)

Calibration, maintenance, and modifications. Each registrant shall maintain records showing calibrations, maintenance, and modifications performed on each mammographic machine. These records shall include the date of the calibration, maintenance, or modification performed, the name of the individual making the record, and the manufacturer's model and serial number of the control panel of the mammographic machine. These records may be maintained in electronic format.

(t)

Certification requirements. In addition to the requirements of §289.226(c) and if applicable, (g) of this title, each applicant shall comply with the following.

(1)

Each person having a mammographic x-ray unit shall apply for and receive certification for the mammography system from the agency before beginning use of the mammographic x-ray unit on humans.

(2)

An application for mammography certification shall be signed by a licensed physician. The signature of the applicant and the radiation safety officer (RSO) shall also be required.

(3)

An applicant for certification must obtain a certification on each mammography system that is used by the applicant or the applicant's agent (for the purposes of the requirements of this paragraph, the word "used" refers to the entity other than the technologist that directs the application of radiation to humans). An application for mammography system certification may contain information on multiple mammography x-ray units. Each x-ray unit must be identified by referring to the machine's manufacturer, model number, and serial number of the control panel. The registrant shall maintain and provide proof of current accreditation and FDA certification status. If accreditation or FDA certification expires before the expiration of the certification of mammography systems, the registrant shall submit proof of renewed status to the agency.

(4)

The applicant shall be qualified by reason of training and experience to use the mammographic machines for the purpose requested in accordance with this chapter in such a manner as to minimize danger to public health and safety.

(5)

Each applicant shall submit documentation of the following:

(A)

personnel qualifications, including dates of licensure or certification, in accordance with subsection (f) of this section;

(B)

model and serial number of each mammographic unit control panel;

(C)

evidence of the following by a physicist meeting the requirements of subsection (f)(3) of this section:

(i)

that each unit meets the equipment standards in subsection (g) of this section; and

(ii)

the average glandular dose for one craniocaudal-caudal view for each unit does not exceed the value in subsection (l)(5)(F) of this section; and

(D)

self-referral program information in accordance with subsection (h) of this section, if the facility offers self-referral mammography.

(6)

Applications shall be processed in accordance with the following time periods.

(A)

The first period is the time from receipt of an application by the Division of Licensing, Registration and Standards to the date of issuance or denial of the certification or a written notice outlining why the application is incomplete or unacceptable. This time period is 60 days.

(B)

The second period is the time from receipt of the last item necessary to complete the application to the date of issuance or denial of the certification. This time period is 30 days.

(C)

These time periods are exclusive of any time period incident to hearings and post-hearing activities required by the Government Code, Chapters 2001 and 2002.

(7)

Notwithstanding the provisions of §289.204 of this title, reimbursement of application fees may be granted in the following manner.

(A)

In the event the application is not processed in the time periods as stated in paragraph (6) of this subsection, the applicant has the right to request of the director of the Radiation Control Program full reimbursement of all application fees paid in that particular application process. If the director does not agree that the established periods have been violated or finds that good cause existed for exceeding the established periods, the request will be denied.

(B)

Good cause for exceeding the period established is considered to exist if:

(i)

the number of applications for certification to be processed exceeds by 15% or more the number processed in the same calendar quarter the preceding year;

(ii)

another public or private entity utilized in the application process caused the delay; or

(iii)

other conditions existed giving good cause for exceeding the established periods.

(C)

If the request for full reimbursement authorized by subparagraph (A) of this paragraph is denied, the applicant may then request a hearing by appeal to the Commissioner of Health for a resolution of the dispute. The appeal will be processed in accordance with Formal Hearing Procedures, Chapter 1, §§1.21-1.34 of this title (relating to the Texas Board of Health).

(u)

Issuance of certification of mammography systems. Issuance of certification of mammography systems shall be in accordance with §289.226(k) of this title.

(v)

Specific terms and conditions of certification of mammography systems. Specific terms and conditions of certification of mammography systems shall be in accordance with §289.226(l) of this title.

(w)

Responsibilities of registrant.

(1)

In addition to the requirements of §289.226(m)(2) and (4)-(7) of this title, a registrant shall notify the agency in writing prior to any changes that would render the information contained in the application or the certification of mammography systems inaccurate. These include but are not limited to the following:

(A)

name and mailing address;

(B)

street address where machine(s) will be used; and

(C)

mammographic x-ray units.

(2)

Prior to employing the individuals listed in subparagraphs (A)-(E) of this paragraph, the registrant is required to verify and maintain copies of their qualifications. Registrants utilizing relief interpreting physicians or technologists from a temporary service do not need to notify the agency unless these personnel will be at the facility for a period exceeding four weeks. Documentation of qualifications of individuals listed in subparagraphs (A)-(E) of this paragraph and notification of a change in any of the following is required within 30 days of such change:

(A)

radiation safety officer;

(B)

lead interpreting physician;

(C)

interpreting physicians;

(D)

operators of equipment; or

(E)

licensed medical physicist.

(3)

Prior to operating mammography equipment at an additional use location, the registrant shall submit an application to the agency for approval and receive an amendment to the certification of mammography systems.

(4)

The following criteria applies to new, replacement, or loaner units and units used for clinical trial evaluations.

(A)

All mammography units shall have either current accreditation or have submitted an application to an accreditation body for review. If accreditation expires, mammograms shall cease to be performed until such time as the accreditation application is received by the accreditation body and approval is given. Mammography units that are loaner units as described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph or units involved in clinical trial evaluations as described in subparagraph (D) of this paragraph are exempt from accreditation requirements.

(B)

A facility with an existing certification of mammography system may begin using a new or replacement unit before receiving an updated certification if the paperwork regarding the unit has been submitted to the agency with a licensed medical physicist's report in accordance with subsection (l)(10) of this section verifying compliance of the new unit with the regulations. The physicist's report is required prior to using the unit on patients.

(C)

Loaner units may be used on patients for 60 days without adding the unit to the certification. A licensed medical physicist's report verifying compliance of the loaner unit with this section shall be completed prior to use on patients. The results of the survey must be submitted to the agency with a cover letter indicating period of use. If the use period will exceed 60 days, the facility shall add the unit to their certification and a prorated fee will be assessed.

(D)

Units involved in clinical trial evaluations may be used on patients for 60 days without adding the unit to an existing certification. A licensed medical physicist's report verifying compliance of the unit with this section shall be completed prior to use on patients. The results of the survey must be submitted to the agency with a cover letter indicating period of use. If the use period will exceed 60 days, the facility shall add the unit to their certification and a prorated fee will be assessed.

(E)

No fees will be assessed for loaner units or evaluation periods of 60 days or less.

(F)

Loaner units or units involved in clinical trial evaluations are exempt from the inspection requirement in subsection (cc)(1) of this section.

(5)

Records of training and experience and all other records required by this section shall be maintained for review in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section.

(x)

Expiration of certification of mammography systems.

(1)

Except as provided by subsection (z) of this section, each certification of mammography systems expires at the end of the day in the month and year stated on the certificate of registration on the expiration date specified. Expiration of the certification of mammography systems does not relieve the registrant of the requirements of this chapter.

(2)

If a registrant does not submit an application for renewal of the certification of mammography systems under subsection (z) of this section, as applicable, the registrant shall on or before the expiration date specified in the certification of mammography systems:

(A)

terminate use of all mammography machines;

(B)

submit a record of the disposition of the mammography units; and

(C)

pay any outstanding fees in accordance with §289.204 of this title.

(y)

Termination of certification of mammography systems. When a registrant decides to terminate all activities involving mammography machines authorized under the certification of mammography systems, the registrant shall:

(1)

notify the agency immediately;

(2)

request termination of the certification of mammography systems in writing;

(3)

submit a record of the disposition of the mammography units;

(4)

pay any outstanding fees in accordance with §289.204 of this title; and

(5)

notify the agency of the film storage location of mammography patient's films.

(z)

Renewal of certification of mammography systems.

(1)

Application for renewal of certification shall be filed in accordance with this subsection and §289.226(c) and (g) of this title, as applicable.

(2)

If a registrant files an application in proper form at least 30 days before the existing certification expires, such existing certification shall not expire until the application status has been determined by the agency.

(3)

A certification for a mammographic unit is valid for three years from the date of issuance unless the certification of the facility is revoked prior to such deadlines. This is effective for certificates issued after September 1, 1997.

(A)

If a registrant fails to renew the certification by the required date, the registrant may renew the certification on payment of the annual fee and a late fee. If the certification is not renewed before the 181st day after the date on which the certification expired, the registrant must apply for an original certification under this section.

(B)

A mammography system may not be used after the expiration date of the certification unless the holder of the expired certification has made a timely and sufficient application for renewal of the certificate as provided in this subsection and §289.226(c) and (g) of this title, as applicable.

(aa)

Modification and revocation of certification of mammography systems. Modification and revocation of certification of mammography systems shall be in accordance with §289.226(q) of this title.

(bb)

Reciprocal recognition of out-of-state certificates of registration. Mammographic x-ray units will not be granted reciprocal recognition and must comply with the requirements of this section.

(cc)

Inspections. In addition to the requirements of §289.201(e) of this title, the following applies to inspections of mammography systems.

(1)

The agency shall inspect each mammography system that receives a certification in accordance with this chapter not later than the 60th day after the date the certification is issued.

(2)

The agency shall inspect, at least once annually, each mammography system that receives a certification.

(3)

To protect the public health, the agency may conduct more frequent inspections than required by this subsection.

(4)

The agency shall make reasonable attempts to coordinate inspections in this section with other inspections required in accordance with this chapter for the facility where the mammography system is used.

(5)

After each satisfactory inspection, the agency shall issue a certificate of inspection for each mammography system inspected. The certificate of inspection shall be posted at a conspicuous place on or near the place where the mammography system is used. The certificate of inspection shall include the following:

(A)

specific identification of the mammography system inspected;

(B)

the name and address of the facility where the mammography system was used at the time of the inspection; and

(C)

the date of the inspection.

(6)

Any Severity Level I violation involving a mammography system, found by the agency, in accordance with §289.205 of this title, constitutes grounds for posting notice of failure of the mammography system to satisfy agency requirements.

(A)

Notification of such failure shall be posted:

(i)

on the mammography x-ray unit at a conspicuous place if the violation is machine-related; or

(ii)

near the place where the mammography system practices if the violation is personnel-related; and

(iii)

in a sufficient number of places to permit the patient to observe the notice.

(B)

The notice of failure shall remain posted until the facility is authorized to remove it by the agency. A facility may post documentation of corrections of the violations submitted to the agency along with the notice of failure until approval to remove the notice of failure is received from the agency.

(7)

The agency shall require registrants who receive a severity Level I violation to notify patients on whom the facility performed a mammogram during the 30 days preceding the date of the inspection that revealed the failure. The facility shall:

(A)

inform the patient that the mammography system failed to satisfy the agency's certification standards;

(B)

recommend that the patient have another mammogram performed at a facility with a certified mammography system; and

(C)

list the three facilities closest to the original testing facility that have a certified mammography system.

(8)

In addition to the requirements of paragraph (7) of this subsection, the agency may require a facility to notify a patient of any other failure of the facility's mammography system to meet the agency's certification standards.

(9)

The patient notification shall include the following:

(A)

explanation of the mammography system failure to the patient; and

(B)

the potential consequences to the mammography patient.

(10)

The registrant shall maintain a record of the mammography patients notified in accordance with paragraphs (7) and (8) of this subsection for inspection by the agency. The records shall include the name and address of each mammography patient notified, date of notification, and a copy of the text sent to the individual.

(dd)

Accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

All mammography facilities shall be accredited by an authorized FDA accreditation body. All facilities applying for and receiving accreditation through the agency shall comply with §289.201(c), (h)-(j) and (l)-(n) of this title, §289.203 of this title, §289.205 of this title, and subsections (f) and (g), (i)-(o), (s), (w), (cc), (ee), (hh) and (nn)(1)-(4) of this section.

(2)

In order to be accredited by the agency, the applicant shall submit an application for accreditation on forms and in accordance with accompanying instructions prescribed by the agency.

(A)

Each application shall be signed by a licensed physician.

(B)

The agency may at any time after the filing of the original application, require further statements in order to enable the agency to determine whether the accreditation document should be issued, denied, modified, or revoked.

(C)

Applications and documents submitted to the agency may be made available for public inspection except that the agency may withhold any document or part thereof from public inspection in accordance with §289.201(n) of this title.

(D)

Each application for accreditation shall be accompanied by the fee prescribed in subsection (ee) of this section.

(E)

Each applicant shall submit documentation of the following:

(i)

personnel qualifications, training, and experience in accordance with subsection (f) of this section;

(ii)

model and serial number of each mammographic unit control panel; and

(iii)

evidence that no earlier than six months before the date of application for accreditation by the facility, a medical physicist performed the following:

(I)

a survey in accordance with subsection (l)(10) of this section; and

(II)

a mammography equipment evaluation in accordance with subsection (l)(11) of this section if performed after the survey specified in subclause (I) of this clause.

(F)

Upon notification by the agency, each applicant shall directly submit clinical and phantom images to the image review board in accordance with their procedures.

(ee)

Fees for accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

Each new and renewal application for accreditation of a mammography facility shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee. No application will be accepted for filing or processed prior to payment of the full amount specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection.

(2)

The nonrefundable fee in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection shall be paid every three years for each accredited mammography unit.

(3)

Fee payments shall be in cash or by check or money order made payable to the Texas Department of Health. The payments may be mailed or made by personal delivery to the Bureau of Radiation Control, Texas Department of Health, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3189.

(4)

Fees for accreditation of mammography facilities are as follows.

(A)

The accreditation fee for the first mammography unit is $720.

(B)

The accreditation fee for each additional mammography unit is $345.

(C)

The fee for re-evaluation of clinical images due to failure during the accreditation process is $220 per unit.

(D)

The fee for re-evaluation of phantom images due to failure during the accreditation process is $110 per unit.

(E)

The fee for an additional required mammography review is $250 per unit.

(F)

Each facility for which an on-site visit due to three denials of accreditation is required will be charged for actual expenses to the agency arising from such visit. Payment of this fee shall be made within 60 days following the date of invoice.

(ff)

Issuance of accreditation of a mammography facility. An accreditation document will be issued when the mammography facility meets the requirements of subsections (dd) and (ee) of this section and becomes accredited by the agency. In order for an accreditation to be issued, the agency must be notified by the image review board that the applicant met the criteria for clinical images, phantom images, and processor quality control.

(gg)

Specific terms and conditions of accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

Each accreditation document issued in accordance with this section shall be subject to the applicable provisions of the Act, now or hereafter in effect, and to the applicable requirements and orders of the agency.

(2)

No accreditation document issued by the agency under this section shall be transferred, assigned, or in any manner disposed of, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to any person.

(hh)

Responsibilities of an accredited facility. A facility shall notify the agency of any changes that would render the information contained in the application inaccurate.

(ii)

Expiration and renewal of accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

The accreditation shall expire on the date specified on the accreditation document.

(2)

Application for renewal of accreditation shall be filed in accordance with subsections (dd) and (ee) of this section.

(3)

If a mammography facility files an application for renewal in proper form at least 30 days before the existing accreditation expires, the facility may continue to perform mammography under approval by the FDA until the review process is complete and accreditation status has been determined by the agency.

(4)

Accreditation for a mammographic facility is valid for three years from the date of issuance, unless accreditation of the facility is revoked prior to such deadline.

(5)

Issuance of renewal of accreditation shall be in accordance with subsection (ff) of this section.

(jj)

Denial of accreditation of mammography facilities.

(1)

Any application for accreditation may be denied by the agency when the applicant fails to meet established criteria for accreditation or fails to respond to requests for information. Agency action on an application will be abandoned due to lack of response by the applicant. Abandonment of such actions does not provide an opportunity for a hearing; however, the applicant retains the right to resubmit the application at any time.

(2)

Before the agency denies an application for accreditation, the agency shall give notice of the intent to deny, and the facts warranting the denial, and shall afford the applicant an opportunity for a hearing. The notice shall be given by personal service or by certified mail, return receipt requested. If no request for a hearing is received by the director of the Radiation Control Program within 30 days of personal service or the date of mailing, the agency may proceed to deny. The applicant shall have the burden of proof showing cause why the application should not be denied.

(kk)

Modification and revocation of accreditation of mammography facilities. Modification and revocation of accreditation of mammography facilities shall be in accordance with §289.205 of this title.

(ll)

On-site facility visit and random film checks. Each accredited facility shall:

(1)

afford the agency, at all reasonable times, opportunity to audit the facility where mammography equipment or associated equipment is used or stored;

(2)

make available to the agency for inspection, upon reasonable notice, records maintained in accordance with this chapter; or

(3)

make available to the image review board, random clinical images upon request by the agency.

(mm)

Complaints. Each registrant shall do the following:

(1)

establish a written procedure for collecting and resolving consumer complaints;

(2)

maintain a record of each serious complaint received by the facility in accordance with subsection (nn)(3) of this section;

(3)

report unresolved serious complaints to the agency within (30) days of receiving the complaint; and

(4)

post the following address where complaints may be filed with the Texas Department of Health, Bureau of Radiation Control, Mammography Accreditation Program, 1100 West 49th Street, Austin, Texas 78756-3189;

(nn)

Appendices.

(1)

Subjects to be included in mammography training for medical radiologic technologists shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(A)

anatomy and physiology of the female breast that shall include:

(i)

mammary glands;

(ii)

external anatomy;

(iii)

retromammary space;

(iv)

central portion;

(v)

Cooper's ligament;

(vi)

vessels, nerves, lymphatics; and

(vii)

breast tissue:

(I)

fibro-glandular;

(II)

fibro-fatty;

(III)

fatty; and

(IV)

lactating;

(B)

mammography positioning that shall include actual positioning of patients and/or models as follows:

(i)

craniocaudal;

(ii)

mediolateral oblique;

(iii)

supplemental;

(iv)

magnification;

(v)

errors in positioning;

(vi)

postoperative breast and the augmented breast;

(vii)

breast localization and specimen radiography; and

(viii)

use of compression;

(C)

technical factors;

(D)

film evaluation and critique;

(E)

pathology; and

(F)

quality assurance program.

(2)

Subjects to be included in mammography training for interpreting physicians shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(A)

radiation physics, including radiation physics specific to mammography;

(B)

radiation effects;

(C)

radiation protection; and

(D)

interpretation of mammograms. This shall be under the direct supervision of a physician who meets the requirements of subsection (f)(1) of this section.

(3)

Time requirements for record keeping. Time requirements for record keeping shall be in accordance with the following chart.

Figure: 25 TAC §289.230(nn)(3)

(4)

Operating and safety procedures. The registrant's operating and safety procedures shall include, but are not limited to, the following procedures as applicable:

(A)

ordering x-ray exams in accordance with §289.201(a) of this title; and

(B)

occupational dose requirements in accordance with §289.202(f), (j), and (l)-(n) of this title;

(C)

posting of a radiation area in accordance with §289.202(g) of this title;

(D)

personnel monitoring requirements in accordance with §289.202(p)-(r) of this title;

(E)

posting notices to workers in accordance with §289.203(b) of this title;

(F)

instructions to workers in accordance with §289.203(c) of this title;

(G)

notifications and reports to individuals in accordance with §289.203(d) of this title;

(H)

credentialing requirements for lead interpreting physicians, interpreting physicians, medical radiologic technologists, and medical physicists in accordance with subsection (f) of this section;

(I)

self-referral mammography in accordance with subsection (h) of this section;

(J)

retention of clinical images in accordance with subsection (i)(4) of this section;

(K)

quality assurance program in accordance with subsections (k), (l)(12) and (14), and (m) of this section;

(L)

image quality and corrective action for images of poor quality in accordance with subsection (k)(1)(B)(i) of this section;

(M)

repeat analysis in accordance with subsection (l)(3)(B) of this section;

(N)

procedures and techniques for mammography patients with breast implants;

(O)

use of a technique chart in accordance with subsection (s)(3) of this section;

(P)

exposure of individuals other than the patient in accordance with subsection (s)(6) of this section; and

(Q)

procedure to handle complaints in accordance with subsection (mm) of this section.

(5)

Phantom image scoring protocol. Each of the following object groups are to be scored separately. In order to receive a passing score on the phantom image, all three test object groups must pass. A failure in any one of the areas results in a phantom failure.

(A)

Fibers. A score of 4.0 for fibers is required to meet the evaluation criteria. The diameter size of fibers are 1.56 mm, 1.12 mm, 0.89 mm, 0.75 mm, 0.54 mm, and 0.40 mm. Score the fibers as follows.

(i)

Begin with the largest fiber and move down in size, adding one point for each full fiber until a score of zero or one half is given. Stop counting at the first point where you lose visibility of objects.

(ii)

If the entire length of the fiber can be seen and its location and orientation are correct, that fiber receives a score of one.

(iii)

If at least half, but not all, of the fiber can be seen and its location and orientation are correct, that fiber receives a score of one half.

(iv)

If less than one half of a fiber can be seen or if the location or orientation are incorrect, that fiber receives a score of zero.

(v)

After determining the last fiber to be counted, look at the overall background for artifacts. If there are background objects that are fiber-like in appearance and are of equal or greater brightness than the last visible half or full fiber counted, subtract the last half or full fiber scored.

(B)

Speck groups. A score of 3.0 for speck groups is required to meet the evaluation criteria. Diameter sizes of speck groups are 0.54 mm, 0.40 mm, 0.32 mm, 0.24 mm, and 0.16 mm. There are six specks per group. Score the speck groups as follows.

(i)

Begin with the largest speck group and move down in size adding one point for each full speck group until a score of one half or zero is given, then stop.

(ii)

If at least four of the specks in any group are visualized, the speck group is scored as one.

(iii)

If two or three specks in a group are visualized, the score for the group is one half.

(iv)

If one speck or no specks from a group are visualized, the score is zero.

(v)

After determining the last speck group to receive a full or one-half point, look at the overall background for artifacts. If there are speck-like artifacts within the insert region of the phantom that are of equal or greater brightness than individual specks counted in the last visible half or full speck group counted, subtract the artifact speck from the observed specks, one by one. Repeat the scoring of the last visible speck group after these deductions.

(C)

Masses. A score of 3.0 is required to meet the evaluation criteria. Diameter sizes of masses are 2.00 mm, 1.00 mm, 0.75 mm, 0.50 mm, and 0.25 mm. Score the masses as follows.

(i)

Begin with the largest mass and add one point for each full mass observed until a score of one half or zero is assigned.

(ii)

Score one for each mass that appears as a minus density object in the correct location that can be seen clearly enough to observe round, circumscribed borders.

(iii)

Score one half if the mass is clearly present in the correct location, but the borders are not visualized as circular.

(iv)

After determining the last full or half mass to be counted, look at the overall background for artifacts. If there are background objects that are mass-like in appearance and are of equal or greater visibility than the last visible mass, subtract the last full or half point assigned from the original score.

This agency hereby certifies that the adoption has been reviewed by legal counsel and found to be a valid exercise of the agency's legal authority.

Filed with the Office of the Secretary of State on March 22, 1999.

TRD-9901710

Susan K. Steeg

General Counsel

Texas Department of Health

Effective date: April 28, 1999

Proposal publication date: December 4, 1998

For further information, please call: (512) 458-7236